This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
Hmmmm that’s actually a descent thought.
Don't you just wish they would have said it in court?
So I’m no lawyer, but there are major differences between criminal cases and civil cases. A criminal case requires a much higher burden of evidence, and it requires a much more lengthy amount of time to process... I think the reason you saw the lawyers back off when asked specifically if they are alleging fraud is because then they would need to specifically get into the details of exactly who did what and this it would turn into a criminal case.
The goal was to quickly get through the courts and the only possible way to do this was to try the cases as civil cases in the small amount of time they had. They probably didn’t care if the cases got thrown out at lower levels because the quicker they could get them to the SC the better, at least they thought that would be the case.
I think they likely thought the constitutional arguments (states violating their own constitutions by unilaterally changing election law without state legislatures) were more of a slam-dunk as they were very black and white (law says this, state did this).
True, honestly that’s all they should have ever needed. Anything else was just icing on the cake. But alas, fucked up system with no hope in sight.
It was a guten morgen indeed!