This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
By get through it quickly, they had a very small window between when the election took place and when inaugurated took place. They had to move fast. Part of the strategy seemed to be to try to get to the Supreme Court where if the Supreme Court actually did their job, it would have been more meaningful than a lower level court ruling, plus conservatives should at least expect to not have a court that’s extremely biased against them at the Supreme Court level. That turned out to be false.