THIS JUST DOESN’T ADD UP !!??
DOES ANYONE KNOW HOW THEY EXPLAIN THIS??
(media.greatawakening.win)
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Of course I can't prove how my ancestors voted back in the 1700s. Ballots are secret, and I don't know that they had actual party registrations back then, so there's no way to tell how anyone voted back then. I'm pretty sure my oldest slave-owning ancestor voted conservatively, regardless of what the parties were called back then.
Thomas Jefferson owned slaves, and he was in what was usually called the Republican party, not the Federalist party. The party was really called the Democratic Republican party, so D'Souza would weasel on that one.
On the other hand, Chief Justice John Marshall owned slaves, and he supported the Federalist party. So whichever party you count as being equivalent to today's Republican party, there were slave owners in both parties. That's a documented fact.
Jefferson was not a Republican FFS. The Federalist party was not called the Republican party (the party of abolition of slavery).
No Republican ever owned slaves. Those who are documented were Democrats who changed their party affiliation at the time of the beginning of the Civil War. Democrats in Republican clothing. They were not Republicans (abolitionists) if they owned slaves. That would be an oxymoron.