Just spitballing here, I saw this on voat and it got me thinking.
https://files.catbox.moe/i6cudi.mp4
If 45% of molesting is by gays, which comprise 2% of the population...
then 55% is coming from non-gays?
wouldn't it be more likely that 4% or more... 6%? are "closeted" and are the ones filling out the remainder?
Sodomites. 4-6%
I don’t think all gays are pedos, so no. I’d assume that anyone with a sexual deviancy is going to be statistically more likely to be a pedophile, but I think most are not pedos.
That's not how statistics work. Obviously.