I think you missed the context … the premise was all debts would be absolved Because of ‘muh Visa’. Not irrelevant in the context of debt absolution. Visa having executed the transactions, MAY be culpable for processing those illicit transactions, but that culpability would not extend to the debt holder.

EDIT: add: Unless the banks were also complicit i.e. they were well aware of the Visa fukery. I cant imagine in a million years someone at the banks did not know.

I think you missed the context … the premise was all debts would be absolved Because of ‘muh Visa’. Not irrelevant in the context of debt absolution. Visa having executed the transactions, MAY be culpable for processing those illicit transactions, but that culpability would not extend to the debt holder.