Let's see, the short of it is this:

• The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
• The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
• When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the United States they didn't already own), and there was no money left in M2 for loans because of what the Reserve Ratio was set at, and the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.

Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause massive economic destruction.

Regardless,

• Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.

So people were screwed. Wages and the price of goods sold had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money to pay anyone, or buy anything, or available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed by paying off the debt.

So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.

So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.

Interestingly, not long after, FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.

FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.

No American's gained that 75% increase in buying power unfortunately, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).

I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.

Let's see, the short of it is this:

• The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
• The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
• When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the United States they didn't already own), and there was no money left in M2 for loans because of what the Reserve Ratio was set at, and the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.

Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause massive economic destruction.

Regardless,

• Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.

So people were screwed. Wages and the price of goods sold had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money to pay anyone, or buy anything, or available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed by paying off the debt.

So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.

So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.

Interestingly, not long after FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.

FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.

No American's gained that 75% increase in buying power unfortunately, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).

I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.

Let's see, the short of it is this:

• The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
• The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
• When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the United States they didn't already own), and there was no money left in M2 for loans because of what the Reserve Ratio was set at, and the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.

Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause massive economic destruction.

Regardless,

• Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.

So people were screwed. Wages and the price of goods sold had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money to pay anyone, or buy anything, or available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed.

So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.

So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.

Interestingly, not long after FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.

FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.

No American's gained that 75% increase in buying power unfortunately, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).

I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.

Let's see, the short of it is this:

• The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
• The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
• When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the United States they didn't already own), and there was no money left in M2 for loans because of what the Reserve Ratio was set at, and the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.

Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause massive economic destruction.

Regardless,

• Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.

So people were screwed. Wages had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed.

So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.

So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.

Interestingly, not long after FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.

FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.

No American's gained that 75% increase in buying power unfortunately, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).

I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.

Let's see, the short of it is this:

• The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
• The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
• When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the United States they didn't already own), and there was no money left in M2 for loans because of what the Reserve Ratio was set at, and the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.

Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause a massive depression.

Regardless,

• Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.

So people were screwed. Wages had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed.

So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.

So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.

Interestingly, not long after FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.

FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.

No American's gained that 75% increase in buying power unfortunately, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).

I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.

Let's see, the short of it is this:

• The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
• The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
• When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the world), and there was no money left in M2 because of the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.

Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause a massive depression.

Regardless,

• Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.

So people were screwed. Wages had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed.

So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.

So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.

Interestingly, not long after FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.

FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.

No American's gained that 75% increase in buying power unfortunately, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).

I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.

Let's see, the short of it is this:

• The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
• The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
• When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the world), and there was no money left in M2 because of the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.

Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause a massive depression.

Regardless,

• Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.

So people were screwed. Wages had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed.

So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.

So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.

Interestingly, not long after FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.

FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.

No American's gained that however, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).

I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.

Let's see, the short of it is this:

• The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
• The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
• When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the world), and there was no money left in M2 because of the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.

Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause a massive depression.

Regardless,

• Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.

So people were screwed. Wages had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed.

So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.

So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.

Interestingly, not long after FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.

In addition, FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.

No American's gained that however, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).

I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.

Let's see, the short of it is this:

• The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
• The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
• When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the world), and there was no money left in M2 because of the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.

Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit.

Regardless,

• Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.

So people were screwed. Wages had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed.

So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.

So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.

Interestingly, not long after FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.

No American's gained that however, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).

I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.