I think the properties can't even be that real. If they exist, they have a parcel number, recorded by the Assessor's office, and they are part of the tax data base. Do they check to see if it is a legitimate parcel number? They could, every bit of Arizona was surveyed and registered long ago, and if big chunks are broken into subdivisions, each lot and road and curb is not only described but plotted on a drawing down to a tenth of an inch. I know that from working in 1969 wth a civil engineering company that was doing this chore during a big subdivision boom. So how do the bogus deeds deal with the parcel numbers?.

You know the government is going to pay attention to its revenue. Every year the Assessor mails out a little card of property valuation used to determine taxes on the property so people can argue about it--deadline is in March. Later, about August, they mail out the tax bill. If the property doesn't exist and is escaping this process, it could go unknown until the property was sold. Then the deceit might be uncovered. Seems like the deeds/property needs to be "sold" for the bribee to actually collect something. How is it happening?

I think the properties can't even be that real. If they exist, they have a parcel number, recorded by the Assessor's office, and they are part of the tax data base. Do they check to see if it a laid parcel number? They could, every bit of Arizona was surveyed and registered long ago, and if big chunks are broken into subdivisions, each lot and road and curb is not only described but plotted on a drawing down to a tenth of an inch. I know that from working in 1969 wth a civil engineering company that was doing this chore during a big subdivision boom. So how do the bogus deeds deal with the parcel numbers?.

You know the government is going to pay attention to its revenue. Every year the Assessor mails out a little card of property valuation used to determine taxes on the property so people can argue about it--deadline is in March. Later, about August, they mail out the tax bill. If the property doesn't exist and is escaping this process, it could go unknown until the property was sold. Then the deceit might be uncovered. Seems like the deeds/property needs to be "sold" for the bribee to actually collect something. How is it happening?