Yes, you are correct. However you are not recognizing phiálē the English and modern meaning of it. In the Greek,the word φιάλη phiálē is indeed a broad shallow cup ("phial"):—vial.

In Middle English (1300–50) viole, is a variant of fiole phial, which is the modern word 'vial'.

The word has become to mean something used in a scientific setting. If Revelation is of a time to come, then why wouldn't the word phiálē (vial) be the same? The English word, 'vial' used in this verse is widely recognized.

Yes, you are correct. However you are not recognizing phiálē the English and modern meaning of it. In the Greek,the word φιάλη phiálē is indeed a broad shallow cup ("phial"):—vial.

In Middle English (1300–50) viole, is a variant of fiole phial, which is the modern word 'vial'.

The word has become to mean something used in a scientific setting. If Revelation is of a time to come, then why wouldn't the word phiálē (vial) be the same?