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Reason: None provided.

Hey, Slyver.

If you had written this post a few years ago, I would have agreed with you.

Today, I do not.

Of course back then, I never really researched the Bible, or even the historical and archeological records of that time. I only read people's opinions about it.

Which God? The bible talks about numerous gods

Elohim is the plural form of El. Although it does use the plural form, as well, the actions of God are always in the singular form. Never "they created this," but rather "they decided this" and "He created it." And that is in Genesis 1.

I don't know if it was a mistranslation or like the "royal we" or talking about His buddies, the angels, or whatever. I wasn't there, and have never found any clear-cut answers.

But if it were a variety of gods, we would get a story about a variety of gods.

We do not.

Jewish Priest Aristocracy's influence in the creation of The Church and later biblical translations

I agree that early jews played a role in purposely mistranslating the Bible in many areas.

The council of Nicaea was originally organized by the Mithra worshiper, Emperor Constantine, who created the modern day version of "Christianity" (completely subverting it from the original)

Mthra, however, came long after the books of the Old Testament. It should not be suprising that simiar stories would be floating around the region, passed on to other people, who came up with their own similar stories.

Also, Rome was originally anti-Christian/Hebrew, so it is unlikely they would have done a 180 and turned on a dime to Christianity. It was more likely to be something that was partially accepted at first, but in a different name or ideology, and only later accepted as more and more people believed it.

This effort, started three full centuries after Jesus (imagine how different our world is from three hundred years ago to get an idea of how long this is) united Mithraism (some people call it "paganism," but it was specifically Mithraism), Judaism, and Christianity into One Religion.

The product of the Council was the early Roman Catholic Church, with all of its power in the lives of the people. We can agree that this was a primary motivation.

However, those are not the people who wrote the books. They decided which books would get the stamp of approval ("canon law") and which would not, but none of those books were originally written in Latin.

Why do we have so many "pagan" dates, celebrations, etc. in Christianity? This is why. Because that is the origin of today's "Christianity".

Agreed.

These Jewish Aristocrats are the direct descendants of the exact same people who wrote the books of the OT. That's not really a controversial statement either, though many don't really think about it.

You can make that claim, but you don't have any direct evidence of it.

The early "jews" HATED the Old Testament as much as the New Testament.

Today, the Talmud teaches that Jesus is living in Hell and burning in excrement.

It teaches that Christianity must be destroyed, and that any non-jew can be treated as not human.

The "jews" of 3,000 years ago hated the books of Moses as much as they do today.

If they actually wrote the originals, there would have been no need to infiltrate and subvert it over the centuries.

Look at all the "anti-semitism" bullshit warnings today. If the jews had not lied about the Holocaust in such a dumb way that people could figure out it was a lie, they would not have to run for cover by passing laws outlawing the questioning of it.

If they had written the original books of the Bible, they never would have made it so anti-jew.

Why did Martin Luther protest the Roman Catholic Church in the 1500's? Why did he write such anti-jew literature once he had read the original texts of the Bible?

Because he realized that the jews had been lying, with the RCC as their co-conspirator, all those centuries about what the original books of the Bible REALLY said.

After all, through all those centuries, the non-jews never had the internet (or even, the printing press).

1 year ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Hey, Slyver.

If you had written this post a few years ago, I would have agreed with you.

Today, I do not.

Of course back then, I never really researched the Bible, or even the historical and archeological records of that time. I only read people's opinions about it.

Which God? The bible talks about numerous gods

Elohim is the plural form of El. Although it does use the plural form, as well, the actions of God are always in the singular form. Never "they created this," but rather "they decided this" and "He created it." And that is in Genesis 1.

I don't know if it was a mistranslation or like the "royal we" or talking about His buddies, the angels, or whatever. I wasn't there, and have never found any clear-cut answers.

But if it were a variety of gods, we would get a story about a variety of gods.

We do not.

Jewish Priest Aristocracy's influence in the creation of The Church and later biblical translations

I agree that early jews played a role in purposely mistranslating the Bible in many areas.

The council of Nicaea was originally organized by the Mithra worshiper, Emperor Constantine, who created the modern day version of "Christianity" (completely subverting it from the original)

Mthra, however, came long after the books of the Old Testament. It should not be suprising that simiar stories would be floating around the region, passed on to other people, who came up with their own similar stories.

Also, Rome was originally anti-Christian/Hebrew, so it is unlikely they would have done a 180 and turned on a dime to Christianity. It was more likely to be something that was partially accepted at first, but in a different name or ideology, and only later accepted as more and more people believed it.

This effort, started three full centuries after Jesus (imagine how different our world is from three hundred years ago to get an idea of how long this is) united Mithraism (some people call it "paganism," but it was specifically Mithraism), Judaism, and Christianity into One Religion.

The product of the Council was the early Roman Catholic Church, with all of its power in the lives of the people. We can agree that this was a primary motivation.

However, those are not the people who wrote the books. They decided which books would get the stamp of approval ("canon law") and which would not, but none of those books were originally written in Latin.

Why do we have so many "pagan" dates, celebrations, etc. in Christianity? This is why. Because that is the origin of today's "Christianity".

Agreed.

These Jewish Aristocrats are the direct descendants of the exact same people who wrote the books of the OT. That's not really a controversial statement either, though many don't really think about it.

You can make that claim, but you don't have any direct evidence of it.

The early "jews" HATED the Old Testament as much as the New Testament.

Today, the Talmud teaches that Jesus is living in Hell and burning in excrement.

It teaches that Christianity must be destroyed, and than any non-jew can be treated as not human.

The "jews" of 3,000 years ago hated the books of Moses as much as they do today.

If they actually wrote the originals, there would have been no need to infiltrate and subvert it over the centuries.

Look at all the "anti-semitism" bullshit warnings today. If the jews had not lied about the Holocaust in such a dumb way that people could figure out it was a lie, they would not have to run for cover by passing laws outlawing the questioning of it.

If they had written the original books of the Bible, they never would have made it so anti-jew.

Why did Martin Luther protest the Roman Catholic Church in the 1500's? Why did he write such anti-jew literature once he had read the original texts of the Bible?

Because he realized that the jews had been lying, with the RCC as their co-conspirator, all those centuries about what the original books of the Bible REALLY said.

After all, through all those centuries, the non-jews never had the internet (or even, the printing press).

1 year ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Hey, Slyver.

If you had written this post a few years ago, I would have agreed with you.

Today, I do not.

Of course back then, I never really researched the Bible, or even the historical and archeological records of that time. I only read people's opinions about it.

Which God? The bible talks about numerous gods

Elohim is the plural form of El. Although it does use the plural form, as well, the actions of God are always in the singular form. Never "they created this," but rather "they decided this" and "He created it." And that is in Genesis 1.

I don't know if it was a mistranslation or like the "royal we" or talking about His buddies, the angels, or whatever. I wasn't there, and have never found any clear-cut answers.

But if it were a variety of gods, we would get a story about a variety of gods.

We do not.

Jewish Priest Aristocracy's influence in the creation of The Church and later biblical translations

I agree that early jews played a role in purposely mistranslating the Bible in many areas.

The council of Nicaea was originally organized by the Mithra worshiper, Emperor Constantine, who created the modern day version of "Christianity" (completely subverting it from the original)

Mthra, however, came long after the books of the Old Testament. It should not be suprising that simiar stories would be floating around the region, passed on to other people, who came up with their own similar stories.

Also, Rome was originally anti-Christian/Hebrew, so it is unlikely they would have done a 180 and turned on a dime to Christianity. It was more likely to be something that was partially accepted at first, but in a different name or ideology, and only later accepted as more and more people believed it.

This effort, started three full centuries after Jesus (imagine how different our world is from three hundred years ago to get an idea of how long this is) united Mithraism (some people call it "paganism," but it was specifically Mithraism), Judaism, and Christianity into One Religion.

The product of the Council was the early Roman Catholic Church, with all of its power in the lives of the people. We can agree that this was a primary motivation.

However, those are not the people who wrote the books. They decide which books would get the stamp of approval and which would not, but none of those books were originally written in Latin.

Why do we have so many "pagan" dates, celebrations, etc. in Christianity? This is why. Because that is the origin of today's "Christianity".

Agreed.

These Jewish Aristocrats are the direct descendants of the exact same people who wrote the books of the OT. That's not really a controversial statement either, though many don't really think about it.

You can make that claim, but you don't have any direct evidence of it.

The early "jews" HATED the Old Testament as much as the New Testament.

Today, the Talmud teaches that Jesus is living in Hell and burning in excrement.

It teaches that Christianity must be destroyed, and than any non-jew can be treated as not human.

The "jews" of 3,000 years ago hated the books of Moses as much as they do today.

If they actually wrote the originals, there would have been no need to infiltrate and subvert it over the centuries.

Look at all the "anti-semitism" bullshit warnings today. If the jews had not lied about the Holocaust in such a dumb way that people could figure out it was a lie, they would not have to run for cover by passing laws outlawing the questioning of it.

If they had written the original books of the Bible, they never would have made it so anti-jew.

Why did Martin Luther protest the Roman Catholic Church in the 1500's? Why did he write such anti-jew literature once he had read the original texts of the Bible?

Because he realized that the jews had been lying, with the RCC as their co-conspirator, all those centuries about what the original books of the Bible REALLY said.

After all, through all those centuries, the non-jews never had the internet (or even, the printing press).

1 year ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Hey, Slyver.

If you had written this post a few years ago, I would have agreed with you.

Today, I do not.

Of course back then, I never really researched the Bible, or even the historical and archeological records of that time. I only read people's opinions about it.

Which God? The bible talks about numerous gods

Elohim is the plural form of El. Although it does use the plural form, as well, the actions of God are always in the singular form. Never "they created this," but rather "they decided this" and "He created it." And that is in Genesis 1.

I don't know if it was a mistranslation or like the "royal we" or talking about His buddies, the angels, or whatever. I wasn't there, and have never found any clear-cut answers.

But if it were a variety of gods, we would get a story about a variety of gods.

We do not.

Jewish Priest Aristocracy's influence in the creation of The Church and later biblical translations

I agree that early jews played a role in purposely mistranslating the Bible in many areas.

The council of Nicaea was originally organized by the Mithra worshiper, Emperor Constantine, who created the modern day version of "Christianity" (completely subverting it from the original)

Mthra, however, came long after the books of the Old Testament. It should not be suprising that simiar stories would be floating around the region, passed on to other people, who came up with their own similar stories.

Also, Rome was originally anti-Christian/Hebrew, so it is unlikely they would have done a 180 and turned on a dime to Christianity. It was more likely to be something that was partially accepted at first, but in a different name or ideology, and only later accepted as more and more people believed it.

This effort, started three full centuries after Jesus (imagine how different our world is from three hundred years ago to get an idea of how long this is) united Mithraism (some people call it "paganism," but it was specifically Mithraism), Judaism, and Christianity into One Religion.

The product of the Council was the early Roman Catholic Church, with all of its power in the lives of the people. We can agree that this was a primary motivation.

However, those are not the people who wrote the books. They decide which books would get the stamp of approval and which would not, but none of those books were originally written in Latin.

Why do we have so many "pagan" dates, celebrations, etc. in Christianity? This is why. Because that is the origin of today's "Christianity".

Agreed.

These Jewish Aristocrats are the direct descendants of the exact same people who wrote the books of the OT. That's not really a controversial statement either, though many don't really think about it.

You can make that claim, but you don't have any direct evidence of it.

The early "jews" HATED the Old Testament as much as the New Testament.

Today, the Talmud teaches that Jesus is living in Hell and burning in excrement.

It teaches that Christianity must be destroyed, and than any non-jew can be treated as not human.

The "jews" of 3,000 years ago hated the books of Moses as much as they do today.

If they actually wrote the originals, there would have been no need to infiltrate and subvert it over the centuries.

Look at all the "anti-semitism" bullshit warnings today. If the jews had not lied about the Holocaust in such a dumb way that people could figure out it was a lie, they would not have to run for cover by passing laws outlawing the questioning of it.

If they had written the original books of the Bible, they never would have made it so anti-jew.

Why did Martin Luther protest the Roman Catholic Church in the 1500's? Why did he write such anti-jew literature once he had read the original texts of the Bible?

Because he realized that the jews had been lying, with the RCC as their co-conspirator, all those centuries about what the original books of the Bible REALLY said.

After all, through all those centuries, the non-jews never had the internet (or even, the printing press).

1 year ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Hey, Slyver.

If you had written this post a few years ago, I would have agreed with you.

Today, I do not.

Of course back then, I never really studied the Bible. I only read people's opinions about it.

Which God? The bible talks about numerous gods

Elohim is the plural form of El. Although it does use the plural form, as well, the actions of God are always in the singular form. Never "they created this," but rather "they decided this" and "He created it." And that is in Genesis 1.

I don't know if it was a mistranslation or like the "royal we" or talking about His buddies, the angels, or whatever. I wasn't there, and have never found any clear-cut answers.

But if it were a variety of gods, we would get a story about a variety of gods.

We do not.

Jewish Priest Aristocracy's influence in the creation of The Church and later biblical translations

I agree that early jews played a role in purposely mistranslating the Bible in many areas.

The council of Nicaea was originally organized by the Mithra worshiper, Emperor Constantine, who created the modern day version of "Christianity" (completely subverting it from the original)

Mthra, however, came long after the books of the Old Testament. It should not be suprising that simiar stories would be floating around the region, passed on to other people, who came up with their own similar stories.

Also, Rome was originally anti-Christian/Hebrew, so it is unlikely they would have done a 180 and turned on a dime to Christianity. It was more likely to be something that was partially accepted at first, but in a different name or ideology, and only later accepted as more and more people believed it.

This effort, started three full centuries after Jesus (imagine how different our world is from three hundred years ago to get an idea of how long this is) united Mithraism (some people call it "paganism," but it was specifically Mithraism), Judaism, and Christianity into One Religion.

The product of the Council was the early Roman Catholic Church, with all of its power in the lives of the people. We can agree that this was a primary motivation.

However, those are not the people who wrote the books. They decide which books would get the stamp of approval and which would not, but none of those books were originally written in Latin.

Why do we have so many "pagan" dates, celebrations, etc. in Christianity? This is why. Because that is the origin of today's "Christianity".

Agreed.

These Jewish Aristocrats are the direct descendants of the exact same people who wrote the books of the OT. That's not really a controversial statement either, though many don't really think about it.

You can make that claim, but you don't have any direct evidence of it.

The early "jews" HATED the Old Testament as much as the New Testament.

Today, the Talmud teaches that Jesus is living in Hell and burning in excrement.

It teaches that Christianity must be destroyed, and than any non-jew can be treated as not human.

The "jews" of 3,000 years ago hated the books of Moses as much as they do today.

If they actually wrote the originals, there would have been no need to infiltrate and subvert it over the centuries.

Look at all the "anti-semitism" bullshit warnings today. If the jews had not lied about the Holocaust in such a dumb way that people could figure out it was a lie, they would not have to run for cover by passing laws outlawing the questioning of it.

If they had written the original books of the Bible, they never would have made it so anti-jew.

Why did Martin Luther protest the Roman Catholic Church in the 1500's? Why did he write such anti-jew literature once he had read the original texts of the Bible?

Because he realized that the jews had been lying, with the RCC as their co-conspirator, all those centuries about what the original books of the Bible REALLY said.

After all, through all those centuries, the non-jews never had the internet (or even, the printing press).

1 year ago
1 score
Reason: Original

Hey, Slyver.

If you had written this post a few years ago, I would have agreed with you.

Today, I do not.

Which God? The bible talks about numerous gods

Elohim is the plural form of El. Although it does use the plural form, as well, the actions of God are always in the singular form. Never "they created this," but rather "they decided this" and "He created it." And that is in Genesis 1.

I don't know if it was a mistranslation or like the "royal we" or talking about His buddies, the angels, or whatever. I wasn't there, and have never found any clear-cut answers.

But if it were a variety of gods, we would get a story about a variety of gods.

We do not.

Jewish Priest Aristocracy's influence in the creation of The Church and later biblical translations

I agree that early jews played a role in purposely mistranslating the Bible in many areas.

The council of Nicaea was originally organized by the Mithra worshiper, Emperor Constantine, who created the modern day version of "Christianity" (completely subverting it from the original)

Mthra, however, came long after the books of the Old Testament. It should not be suprising that simiar stories would be floating around the region, passed on to other people, who came up with their own similar stories.

Also, Rome was originally anti-Christian/Hebrew, so it is unlikely they would have done a 180 and turned on a dime to Christianity. It was more likely to be something that was partially accepted at first, but in a different name or ideology, and only later accepted as more and more people believed it.

This effort, started three full centuries after Jesus (imagine how different our world is from three hundred years ago to get an idea of how long this is) united Mithraism (some people call it "paganism," but it was specifically Mithraism), Judaism, and Christianity into One Religion.

The product of the Council was the early Roman Catholic Church, with all of its power in the lives of the people. We can agree that this was a primary motivation.

However, those are not the people who wrote the books. They decide which books would get the stamp of approval and which would not, but none of those books were originally written in Latin.

Why do we have so many "pagan" dates, celebrations, etc. in Christianity? This is why. Because that is the origin of today's "Christianity".

Agreed.

These Jewish Aristocrats are the direct descendants of the exact same people who wrote the books of the OT. That's not really a controversial statement either, though many don't really think about it.

You can make that claim, but you don't have any direct evidence of it.

The early "jews" HATED the Old Testament as much as the New Testament.

Today, the Talmud teaches that Jesus is living in Hell and burning in excrement.

It teaches that Christianity must be destroyed, and than any non-jew can be treated as not human.

The "jews" of 3,000 years ago hated the books of Moses as much as they do today.

If they actually wrote the originals, there would have been no need to infiltrate and subvert it over the centuries.

Look at all the "anti-semitism" bullshit warnings today. If the jews had not lied about the Holocaust in such a dumb way that people could figure out it was a lie, they would not have to run for cover by passing laws outlawing the questioning of it.

If they had written the original books of the Bible, they never would have made it so anti-jew.

Why did Martin Luther protest the Roman Catholic Church in the 1500's? Why did he write such anti-jew literature once he had read the original texts of the Bible?

Because he realized that the jews had been lying, with the RCC as their co-conspirator, all those centuries about what the original books of the Bible REALLY said.

After all, through all those centuries, the non-jews never had the internet (or even, the printing press).

1 year ago
1 score