The term "Jew", as used in modern culture, is fluid ... It has also allowed people to suddenly consider themselves as a Jew.

Right. Jews today claim they can be a jew by (a) genetic line or (b) "jewish" by religious conversion.

But when they claim jewness, they are talking about ethnicity. They themselves say they are not White, even if they look White. That is a genetic distinction, not a religious one.

Jews often misuse language to confuse people, and this is one of them. Another one is when they talk about the "Torah." They will say it means the first 5 books of the Bible, thereby making them similar to Christians.

But their own religous books also say the "Torah" is ALL of the knowlege -- written and unwritten -- of Judaism. The main one being the Talmud, which they don't like to talk about with non-jews, due to how anti-Christian and anti-Jesus it is.

But God created all things

No, Satan and the fallen angels also played a role.

Read Matthew 15:1-11.

Then, in Matthew 15:12-13 --

"12 Then came his disciples, and said unto him, Knowest thou that the Pharisees were offended, after they heard this saying?

"13 But he answered and said, Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath not planted, shall be rooted up."

So, God did NOT create "everything."

In the end, God will root up all things Satanic -- those things that God did NOT create -- and will separate the wheat from the tares.

Matthew 15:24, Jesus says --

"I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

So many Christians have been deceived by modern, bastardized versions of biblical translations and false ministry doctrines.

Jesus ONLY came for HIS people -- the Israelites, who had been lost over the centuries. They were lost geographcially, and also spiritually. He came for THEM, to save THEM.

In Matthew 13:10-13, Jesus tells his disciples why he only speaks in parables to the non-Israelites (including the people who lived then and were the ancestors of modern-day jews).

This is New Testament stuff. Even today, jews do not believe in the New Testament. They are the same today as they were 2,000 years ago.

God is the ultimate arbiter of the definition of a Jew.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek language. The writers of the New Testament did not use that word.

So, tell me where GOD says that these people were not jews.

Your claim, without any citation, is meaningless.

Who didn't know God? The Scribes and Pharisees.

The Scribes and Pharisees were following the Tradition of the Elders, WHICH IS JUDAISM.

Jesus called them out for it.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek, but we can determine who these people were by the fact that they followed Judaism, not Hebrewism, which was the Old Testament forerunner of Christianity (which did not exist until after Christ).

Judaism was the Tradition of the Elders (which later became the Talmud), and it was the jewish way of GETTING AROUND the Law of God in the Old Testament.

Who did Jesus tell this to for instruction? The Jews.

Wrong. Jesus was talking to his disciples, who were Israelites (possible except for Judas). Israelites were NOT the ancestors of modern jews.

That is the BIG matzah ball hanging out there where so many Christians have been deceived.

Jesus preached strictly to Jews, the lost tribe of Israel

This is where you -- and so many others -- are wrong.

The Israelites were NOT the jews.

Historical records and archeology confirms this.

When the Assyrians took the Israelites into captivity, they created records via carvings on stone tablets. Not just the Israelites, but the Canaanites and others, as well.

The drawings of the Canaanites were of people who had the hook nose and other physical features of modern-day jews (I know ... not ALL jews, but the jews who do are unique in this feature).

The drawings of the Israelites were those of White Europeans.

Historical records of those who wrote at the time, in various ways and for various purposes, wrote about the Israelite people as being White.

The Israelites became "lost" and after Assyrian and Babylonian captivity, some returned to Palestine, but most migrated north to the Caucasus Mountain region.

From there, the eventually emigrated to Europe, where they became known as the Caucasians.

God's promise to Abraham was that his descendents would be many, and they would (a) create many nations around the world, (b) have many kings, and (c) be a blessing to the world.

Only the White Caucasians have fulfilled this promise. They created nations all over the globe. They had many kings. And they invented almost everything that make life better and more pleasant for everyone on Earth, not just themselves.

The jews have never done any of this.

Salvation wasn't offered to gentiles until years after the resurrection.

Once again, the word "gentile" was not part of the Greek language.

The TRANSLATORS put that into the text of the Bible, long after the original scriptures were written.

In doing so, they have CHANGED THE MEANING of what the Bible actually said, originally.

The Old Testament was written in Hebrew. The New Testament was written in Aramaic, which was not understood outside of the area that Jesus lived.

When Christianity began to spread, it was translated into Greek, which was widely understood in Europe, which is where the Isrealites had migrated to (this is why Paul wrote all his letters to Europeans, and not to anyone else in the world).

Later, the Bible was translated into other European languages, including English.

The word "gentile" was not in the original Hebrew. The word used was "goi."

This word means "nation." "Goyim" was the plural.

It was the TRANSLATORS who mistranslated goi into gentile. They probably did this because they were forced to follow the Roman Catholic Church doctrine, or be accused of heresy, which was punished by death. The RCC had been infiltrated by anti-Christians whose agenda was to confuse Christians and destroy Christianity.

When the twins Esau and Jacob were at war in Rebekah's womb, God told her that she had two goyim in her womb -- two nations (not two non-jews).

Jacob was the father of all Israelites, so clearly "nation" could be the only translation.

There are numerous examples throughout the Bible.

In Greek, goi was translated to ethnos. Both words mean "nation," which is the correct translation. It has nothing to do with "non-jews." That was a jewish invention via mistranslation -- once Christianity started gaining popularity in Europe.

The word "gentile" is from the latin word "gentilis," which means "one who is not a Roman citizen." The word has nothing to do with jews. The modern concept that it does is a false concept.

Because gentile meant non-Roman citizen, the word began to be used to refer to pagans and others who were not Romans.

Over time, this morphed into non-jew, somehow.

But the original scriptures use Hebrew and Greek words to mean "nation."

And "nation" means a group of people who are related by blood, and live in a large community. It does not mean a government, country, or so-called "nation-state" like it is used today.

It is a racial term to describe a people who are of similar ethnic background, which clearly could not be ALL non-jews, since non-jews are of all races and ethnic backgrounds.

Jesus was a Jew. All 12 apostles were Jews.

Jesus was NOT a jew, and neither were his disciples, with the possible exception of Judas.

In historical letters written to Rome, complaining of this man who claims to be of God, and stories of his performing miracles, he was described as having blond hair, blue eyes, and was White.

Your local preacher will not talk about this because his seminary did not tell him, and he will not research anything on his own (just like modern doctors).

I'll cut to the chase because Jew haters aren't worth a wall of text

Well, if you are going to resort to ad hominem and personal attacks, rather than a rational discussion, then this will be my last post to you. You are not worth my time anymore than I am worth yours.

But I will post this for others to read, if they are interested in the topic.

It's obvious that if Jews were no longer a thing, and now they're only Christians

I never said that, and don't believe it. Your reference to Revelation is vague, non-specific, and therefore meaningless -- as is your entire post.

The fact that you make a statement and call it a fact, without fleshing it out to explain yourself, indicates that you might not have as deep an understanding as you think you do. That is common because modern churches are not much more than a few minutes of entertainment, a brief "sermon" about nothing really, and then more entertainment and coffee on your way out the door.

They don't actually dig into the ORIGINAL text of the scriptures and what they really mean. It's all very superficial, and the congregation feels good, but has learned nothing.

God said it. Revelation 2:9. Checkmate.

AGAIN ... you do not understand what you are reading. I mentioned Rev 2:9 and Rev 3:9 above.

These are two of the (many) mistransations of the modern Bible.

In your statement, you do what a lot of people do: You take one little snippet of a verse within a chapter of a book of the entire Bible, and take that snippet OUT OF CONTEXT, thereby changing the meaning entirely.

Anytime you read the word "jew" in any English version of any Bible, you have to realize that the word did not exist in the original languages. It is an English translation.

That begs the question: Is the translation correct or false (to satisfy the doctrines of the early Roman Catholic Church, who would kill you if you wrote/translated anything that was against the doctrine set by the bishops)?

In Rev 2:9, John is writing to the church/assembly of Smyrna. Smyrna was a community on the western coast of modern day Turkey. It was one Israelite writing to other Israelites (not jews).

https://bibleatlas.org/full/smyrna.htm

Of the 7 churches that John wrote to, only Smyrna and Philadelphia were not scolded for wrongdoing. The people of Smyrna were keeping The Law.

A correct translation from the original Greek of Rev 2:9 would be --

I know your tribulation and poverty (but you are wealthy), and the blasphemy from those saying for themselves to be Judaeans and they are not, but are a congregation of the Adversary.

They had little earthly wealth (they were living in poverty), but they had great spiritual wealth. The jews don't even believe the New Testament, so they do not have any spiritual wealth.

Judeans = The "jews" of the day were claiming to be Judahites, and therefore Israelites. Here, Jesus is telling the Isrealites that he knows their suffering at the hands of those who CLAIM to be Judahites/Israelites, but are not.

The way the jews were making this claim was that they were resident of the Roman province of Judea, and said they were Judeans, which was true due to their residence. But they also were implying a genetic link to being God's Chosen People, but they were not.

A good analogy would be that today, a Mexican can cross the US border into Texas and call himself a Texan. He might be physically in Texas, but he is not a real Texan, and certainly not an American. Likewise, these jews were Judeans by residence, but they were not of Israel.

The Covenant went from Abraham >> Isaac >> Jacob. But these "jews" were of the genetic lineage of Abraham >> Isaac >> Esau/Edom (the jews today acknowledge this in their own texts). They were also mixed with Canaanites and Kenites.

They could never have been Israelites because they were not descendents of Jacob.

Congregation = people of a church, synagogue, or other temple.

Adversary = the word "Satan" means "Adversary" in Hebrew.

So, no ... you don't have check or mate. You only have a belief in a mistranslation of God's original word.

The term "Jew", as used in modern culture, is fluid ... It has also allowed people to suddenly consider themselves as a Jew.

Right. Jews today claim they can be a jew by (a) genetic line or (b) "jewish" by religious conversion.

But when they claim jewness, they are talking about ethnicity. They themselves say they are not White, even if they look White. That is a genetic distinction, not a religious one.

Jews often misuse language to confuse people, and this is one of them. Another one is when they talk about the "Torah." They will say it means the first 5 books of the Bible, thereby making them similar to Christians.

But their own religous books also say the "Torah" is ALL of the knowlege -- written and unwritten -- of Judaism. The main one being the Talmud, which they don't like to talk about with non-jews, due to how anti-Christian and anti-Jesus it is.

But God created all things

No, Satan and the fallen angels also played a role.

Read Matthew 15:1-11.

Then, in Matthew 15:12-13 --

"12 Then came his disciples, and said unto him, Knowest thou that the Pharisees were offended, after they heard this saying?

"13 But he answered and said, Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath not planted, shall be rooted up."

So, God did NOT create "everything."

In the end, God will root up all things Satanic -- those things that God did NOT create -- and will separate the wheat from the tares.

Matthew 15:24, Jesus says --

"I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

So many Christians have been deceived by modern, bastardized versions of biblical translations and false ministry doctrines.

Jesus ONLY came for HIS people -- the Israelites, who had been lost over the centuries. They were lost geographcially, and also spiritually. He came for THEM, to save THEM.

In Matthew 13:10-13, Jesus tells his disciples why he only speaks in parables to the non-Israelites (including the people who lived then and were the ancestors of modern-day jews).

This is New Testament stuff. Even today, jews do not believe in the New Testament. They are the same today as they were 2,000 years ago.

God is the ultimate arbiter of the definition of a Jew.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek language. The writers of the New Testament did not use that word.

So, tell me where GOD says that these people were not jews.

Your claim, without any citation, is meaningless.

Who didn't know God? The Scribes and Pharisees.

The Scribs and Pharisees were following the Tradition of the Elders, WHICH IS JUDAISM.

Jesus called them out for it.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek, but we can determine who these people were by the fact that they followed Judaism, not Hebrewism, which was the Old Testament forerunner of Christianity (which did not exist until after Christ).

Judaism was the Tradition of the Elders (which later became the Talmud), and it was the jewish way of GETTING AROUND the Law of God in the Old Testament.

Who did Jesus tell this to for instruction? The Jews.

Wrong. Jesus was talking to his disciples, who were Israelites (possible except for Judas). Israelites were NOT the ancestors of modern jews.

That is the BIG matzah ball hanging out there where so many Christians have been deceived.

Jesus preached strictly to Jews, the lost tribe of Israel

This is where you -- and so many others -- are wrong.

The Israelites were NOT the jews.

Historical records and archeology confirms this.

When the Assyrians took the Israelites into captivity, they created records via carvings on stone tablets. Not just the Israelites, but the Canaanites and others, as well.

The drawings of the Canaanites were of people who had the hook nose and other physical features of modern-day jews (I know ... not ALL jews, but the jews who do are unique in this feature).

The drawings of the Israelites were those of White Europeans.

Historical records of those who wrote at the time, in various ways and for various purposes, wrote about the Israelite people as being White.

The Israelites became "lost" and after Assyrian and Babylonian captivity, some returned to Palestine, but most migrated north to the Caucasus Mountain region.

From there, the eventually emigrated to Europe, where they became known as the Caucasians.

God's promise to Abraham was that his descendents would be many, and they would (a) create many nations around the world, (b) have many kings, and (c) be a blessing to the world.

Only the White Caucasians have fulfilled this promise. They created nations all over the globe. They had many kings. And they invented almost everything that make life better and more pleasant for everyone on Earth, not just themselves.

The jews have never done any of this.

Salvation wasn't offered to gentiles until years after the resurrection.

Once again, the word "gentile" was not part of the Greek language.

The TRANSLATORS put that into the text of the Bible, long after the original scriptures were written.

In doing so, they have CHANGED THE MEANING of what the Bible actually said, originally.

The Old Testament was written in Hebrew. The New Testament was written in Aramaic, which was not understood outside of the area that Jesus lived.

When Christianity began to spread, it was translated into Greek, which was widely understood in Europe, which is where the Isrealites had migrated to (this is why Paul wrote all his letters to Europeans, and not to anyone else in the world).

Later, the Bible was translated into other European languages, including English.

The word "gentile" was not in the original Hebrew. The word used was "goi."

This word means "nation." "Goyim" was the plural.

It was the TRANSLATORS who mistranslated goi into gentile. They probably did this because they were forced to follow the Roman Catholic Church doctrine, or be accused of heresy, which was punished by death. The RCC had been infiltrated by anti-Christians whose agenda was to confuse Christians and destroy Christianity.

When the twins Esau and Jacob were at war in Rebekah's womb, God told her that she had two goyim in her womb -- two nations (not two non-jews).

Jacob was the father of all Israelites, so clearly "nation" could be the only translation.

There are numerous examples throughout the Bible.

In Greek, goi was translated to ethnos. Both words mean "nation," which is the correct translation. It has nothing to do with "non-jews." That was a jewish invention via mistranslation -- once Christianity started gaining popularity in Europe.

The word "gentile" is from the latin word "gentilis," which means "one who is not a Roman citizen." The word has nothing to do with jews. The modern concept that it does is a false concept.

Because gentile meant non-Roman citizen, the word began to be used to refer to pagans and others who were not Romans.

Over time, this morphed into non-jew, somehow.

But the original scriptures use Hebrew and Greek words to mean "nation."

And "nation" means a group of people who are related by blood, and live in a large community. It does not mean a government, country, or so-called "nation-state" like it is used today.

It is a racial term to describe a people who are of similar ethnic background, which clearly could not be ALL non-jews, since non-jews are of all races and ethnic backgrounds.

Jesus was a Jew. All 12 apostles were Jews.

Jesus was NOT a jew, and neither were his disciples, with the possible exception of Judas.

In historical letters written to Rome, complaining of this man who claims to be of God, and stories of his performing miracles, he was described as having blond hair, blue eyes, and was White.

Your local preacher will not talk about this because his seminary did not tell him, and he will not research anything on his own (just like modern doctors).

I'll cut to the chase because Jew haters aren't worth a wall of text

Well, if you are going to resort to ad hominem and personal attacks, rather than a rational discussion, then this will be my last post to you. You are not worth my time anymore than I am worth yours.

But I will post this for others to read, if they are interested in the topic.

It's obvious that if Jews were no longer a thing, and now they're only Christians

I never said that, and don't believe it. Your reference to Revelation is vague, non-specific, and therefore meaningless -- as is your entire post.

The fact that you make a statement and call it a fact, without fleshing it out to explain yourself, indicates that you might not have as deep an understanding as you think you do. That is common because modern churches are not much more than a few minutes of entertainment, a brief "sermon" about nothing really, and then more entertainment and coffee on your way out the door.

They don't actually dig into the ORIGINAL text of the scriptures and what they really mean. It's all very superficial, and the congregation feels good, but has learned nothing.

God said it. Revelation 2:9. Checkmate.

AGAIN ... you do not understand what you are reading. I mentioned Rev 2:9 and Rev 3:9 above.

These are two of the (many) mistransations of the modern Bible.

In your statement, you do what a lot of people do: You take one little snippet of a verse within a chapter of a book of the entire Bible, and take that snippet OUT OF CONTEXT, thereby changing the meaning entirely.

Anytime you read the word "jew" in any English version of any Bible, you have to realize that the word did not exist in the original languages. It is an English translation.

That begs the question: Is the translation correct or false (to satisfy the doctrines of the early Roman Catholic Church, who would kill you if you wrote/translated anything that was against the doctrine set by the bishops)?

In Rev 2:9, John is writing to the church/assembly of Smyrna. Smyrna was a community on the western coast of modern day Turkey. It was one Israelite writing to other Israelites (not jews).

https://bibleatlas.org/full/smyrna.htm

Of the 7 churches that John wrote to, only Smyrna and Philadelphia were not scolded for wrongdoing. The people of Smyrna were keeping The Law.

A correct translation from the original Greek of Rev 2:9 would be --

I know your tribulation and poverty (but you are wealthy), and the blasphemy from those saying for themselves to be Judaeans and they are not, but are a congregation of the Adversary.

They had little earthly wealth (they were living in poverty), but they had great spiritual wealth. The jews don't even believe the New Testament, so they do not have any spiritual wealth.

Judeans = The "jews" of the day were claiming to be Judahites, and therefore Israelites. Here, Jesus is telling the Isrealites that he knows their suffering at the hands of those who CLAIM to be Judahites/Israelites, but are not.

The way the jews were making this claim was that they were resident of the Roman province of Judea, and said they were Judeans, which was true due to their residence. But they also were implying a genetic link to being God's Chosen People, but they were not.

A good analogy would be that today, a Mexican can cross the US border into Texas and call himself a Texan. He might be physically in Texas, but he is not a real Texan, and certainly not an American. Likewise, these jews were Judeans by residence, but they were not of Israel.

The Covenant went from Abraham >> Isaac >> Jacob. But these "jews" were of the genetic lineage of Abraham >> Isaac >> Esau/Edom (the jews today acknowledge this in their own texts). They were also mixed with Canaanites and Kenites.

They could never have been Israelites because they were not descendents of Jacob.

Congregation = people of a church, synagogue, or other temple.

Adversary = the word "Satan" means "Adversary" in Hebrew.

So, no ... you don't have check or mate. You only have a belief in a mistranslation of God's original word.

The term "Jew", as used in modern culture, is fluid ... It has also allowed people to suddenly consider themselves as a Jew.

Right. Jews today claim they can be a jew by (a) genetic line or (b) "jewish" by religious conversion.

But when they claim jewishness, they are talking about ethnicity. They themselves say they are not White, even if they look White. That is a genetic distinction, not a religious one.

Jews often misuse language to confuse people, and this is one of them. Another one is when they talk about the "Torah." They will say it means the first 5 books of the Bible, thereby making them similar to Christians.

But their own religous books also say the "Torah" is ALL of the knowlege -- written and unwritten -- of Judaism. The main one being the Talmud, which they don't like to talk about with non-jews, due to how anti-Christian and anti-Jesus it is.

But God created all things

No, Satan and the fallen angels also played a role.

Read Matthew 15:1-11.

Then, in Matthew 15:12-13 --

"12 Then came his disciples, and said unto him, Knowest thou that the Pharisees were offended, after they heard this saying?

"13 But he answered and said, Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath not planted, shall be rooted up."

So, God did NOT create "everything."

In the end, God will root up all things Satanic -- those things that God did NOT create -- and will separate the wheat from the tares.

Matthew 15:24, Jesus says --

"I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

So many Christians have been deceived by modern, bastardized versions of biblical translations and false ministry doctrines.

Jesus ONLY came for HIS people -- the Israelites, who had been lost over the centuries. They were lost geographcially, and also spiritually. He came for THEM, to save THEM.

In Matthew 13:10-13, Jesus tells his disciples why he only speaks in parables to the non-Israelites (including the people who lived then and were the ancestors of modern-day jews).

This is New Testament stuff. Even today, jews do not believe in the New Testament. They are the same today as they were 2,000 years ago.

God is the ultimate arbiter of the definition of a Jew.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek language. The writers of the New Testament did not use that word.

So, tell me where GOD says that these people were not jews.

Your claim, without any citation, is meaningless.

Who didn't know God? The Scribes and Pharisees.

The Scribs and Pharisees were following the Tradition of the Elders, WHICH IS JUDAISM.

Jesus called them out for it.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek, but we can determine who these people were by the fact that they followed Judaism, not Hebrewism, which was the Old Testament forerunner of Christianity (which did not exist until after Christ).

Judaism was the Tradition of the Elders (which later became the Talmud), and it was the jewish way of GETTING AROUND the Law of God in the Old Testament.

Who did Jesus tell this to for instruction? The Jews.

Wrong. Jesus was talking to his disciples, who were Israelites (possible except for Judas). Israelites were NOT the ancestors of modern jews.

That is the BIG matzah ball hanging out there where so many Christians have been deceived.

Jesus preached strictly to Jews, the lost tribe of Israel

This is where you -- and so many others -- are wrong.

The Israelites were NOT the jews.

Historical records and archeology confirms this.

When the Assyrians took the Israelites into captivity, they created records via carvings on stone tablets. Not just the Israelites, but the Canaanites and others, as well.

The drawings of the Canaanites were of people who had the hook nose and other physical features of modern-day jews (I know ... not ALL jews, but the jews who do are unique in this feature).

The drawings of the Israelites were those of White Europeans.

Historical records of those who wrote at the time, in various ways and for various purposes, wrote about the Israelite people as being White.

The Israelites became "lost" and after Assyrian and Babylonian captivity, some returned to Palestine, but most migrated north to the Caucasus Mountain region.

From there, the eventually emigrated to Europe, where they became known as the Caucasians.

God's promise to Abraham was that his descendents would be many, and they would (a) create many nations around the world, (b) have many kings, and (c) be a blessing to the world.

Only the White Caucasians have fulfilled this promise. They created nations all over the globe. They had many kings. And they invented almost everything that make life better and more pleasant for everyone on Earth, not just themselves.

The jews have never done any of this.

Salvation wasn't offered to gentiles until years after the resurrection.

Once again, the word "gentile" was not part of the Greek language.

The TRANSLATORS put that into the text of the Bible, long after the original scriptures were written.

In doing so, they have CHANGED THE MEANING of what the Bible actually said, originally.

The Old Testament was written in Hebrew. The New Testament was written in Aramaic, which was not understood outside of the area that Jesus lived.

When Christianity began to spread, it was translated into Greek, which was widely understood in Europe, which is where the Isrealites had migrated to (this is why Paul wrote all his letters to Europeans, and not to anyone else in the world).

Later, the Bible was translated into other European languages, including English.

The word "gentile" was not in the original Hebrew. The word used was "goi."

This word means "nation." "Goyim" was the plural.

It was the TRANSLATORS who mistranslated goi into gentile. They probably did this because they were forced to follow the Roman Catholic Church doctrine, or be accused of heresy, which was punished by death. The RCC had been infiltrated by anti-Christians whose agenda was to confuse Christians and destroy Christianity.

When the twins Esau and Jacob were at war in Rebekah's womb, God told her that she had two goyim in her womb -- two nations (not two non-jews).

Jacob was the father of all Israelites, so clearly "nation" could be the only translation.

There are numerous examples throughout the Bible.

In Greek, goi was translated to ethnos. Both words mean "nation," which is the correct translation. It has nothing to do with "non-jews." That was a jewish invention via mistranslation -- once Christianity started gaining popularity in Europe.

The word "gentile" is from the latin word "gentilis," which means "one who is not a Roman citizen." The word has nothing to do with jews. The modern concept that it does is a false concept.

Because gentile meant non-Roman citizen, the word began to be used to refer to pagans and others who were not Romans.

Over time, this morphed into non-jew, somehow.

But the original scriptures use Hebrew and Greek words to mean "nation."

And "nation" means a group of people who are related by blood, and live in a large community. It does not mean a government, country, or so-called "nation-state" like it is used today.

It is a racial term to describe a people who are of similar ethnic background, which clearly could not be ALL non-jews, since non-jews are of all races and ethnic backgrounds.

Jesus was a Jew. All 12 apostles were Jews.

Jesus was NOT a jew, and neither were his disciples, with the possible exception of Judas.

In historical letters written to Rome, complaining of this man who claims to be of God, and stories of his performing miracles, he was described as having blond hair, blue eyes, and was White.

Your local preacher will not talk about this because his seminary did not tell him, and he will not research anything on his own (just like modern doctors).

I'll cut to the chase because Jew haters aren't worth a wall of text

Well, if you are going to resort to ad hominem and personal attacks, rather than a rational discussion, then this will be my last post to you. You are not worth my time anymore than I am worth yours.

But I will post this for others to read, if they are interested in the topic.

It's obvious that if Jews were no longer a thing, and now they're only Christians

I never said that, and don't believe it. Your reference to Revelation is vague, non-specific, and therefore meaningless -- as is your entire post.

The fact that you make a statement and call it a fact, without fleshing it out to explain yourself, indicates that you might not have as deep an understanding as you think you do. That is common because modern churches are not much more than a few minutes of entertainment, a brief "sermon" about nothing really, and then more entertainment and coffee on your way out the door.

They don't actually dig into the ORIGINAL text of the scriptures and what they really mean. It's all very superficial, and the congregation feels good, but has learned nothing.

God said it. Revelation 2:9. Checkmate.

AGAIN ... you do not understand what you are reading. I mentioned Rev 2:9 and Rev 3:9 above.

These are two of the (many) mistransations of the modern Bible.

In your statement, you do what a lot of people do: You take one little snippet of a verse within a chapter of a book of the entire Bible, and take that snippet OUT OF CONTEXT, thereby changing the meaning entirely.

Anytime you read the word "jew" in any English version of any Bible, you have to realize that the word did not exist in the original languages. It is an English translation.

That begs the question: Is the translation correct or false (to satisfy the doctrines of the early Roman Catholic Church, who would kill you if you wrote/translated anything that was against the doctrine set by the bishops)?

In Rev 2:9, John is writing to the church/assembly of Smyrna. Smyrna was a community on the western coast of modern day Turkey. It was one Israelite writing to other Israelites (not jews).

https://bibleatlas.org/full/smyrna.htm

Of the 7 churches that John wrote to, only Smyrna and Philadelphia were not scolded for wrongdoing. The people of Smyrna were keeping The Law.

A correct translation from the original Greek of Rev 2:9 would be --

I know your tribulation and poverty (but you are wealthy), and the blasphemy from those saying for themselves to be Judaeans and they are not, but are a congregation of the Adversary.

They had little earthly wealth (they were living in poverty), but they had great spiritual wealth. The jews don't even believe the New Testament, so they do not have any spiritual wealth.

Judeans = The "jews" of the day were claiming to be Judahites, and therefore Israelites. Here, Jesus is telling the Isrealites that he knows their suffering at the hands of those who CLAIM to be Judahites/Israelites, but are not.

The way the jews were making this claim was that they were resident of the Roman province of Judea, and said they were Judeans, which was true due to their residence. But they also were implying a genetic link to being God's Chosen People, but they were not.

A good analogy would be that today, a Mexican can cross the US border into Texas and call himself a Texan. He might be physically in Texas, but he is not a real Texan, and certainly not an American. Likewise, these jews were Judeans by residence, but they were not of Israel.

The Covenant went from Abraham >> Isaac >> Jacob. But these "jews" were of the genetic lineage of Abraham >> Isaac >> Esau/Edom (the jews today acknowledge this in their own texts). They were also mixed with Canaanites and Kenites.

They could never have been Israelites because they were not descendents of Jacob.

Congregation = people of a church, synagogue, or other temple.

Adversary = the word "Satan" means "Adversary" in Hebrew.

So, no ... you don't have check or mate. You only have a belief in a mistranslation of God's original word.

The term "Jew", as used in modern culture, is fluid ... It has also allowed people to suddenly consider themselves as a Jew.

Right. Jews today claim they can be a jew by (a) genetic line or (b) "jewish" by religious conversion.

But when they claim jewishness, they are talking about ethnicity. They themselves say they are not White, even if they look White. That is a genetic distinction, not a religious one.

Jews often misuse language to confuse people, and this is one of them. Another one is when they talk about the "Torah." They will say it means the first 5 books of the Bible, thereby making them similar to Christians.

But their own religous books also say the "Torah" is ALL of the knowlege -- written and unwritten -- of Judaism. The main one being the Talmud, which they don't like to talk about with non-jews, due to how anti-Christian and anti-Jesus it is.

But God created all things

No, Satan and the fallen angels also played a role.

Read Matthew 15:1-11.

Then, in Matthew 15:12-13 --

"12 Then came his disciples, and said unto him, Knowest thou that the Pharisees were offended, after they heard this saying?

"13 But he answered and said, Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath not planted, shall be rooted up."

So, God did NOT create "everything."

In the end, God will root up all things Satanic -- those things that God did NOT create -- and will separate the wheat from the tares.

Matthew 15:24, Jesus says --

"I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

So many Christians have been deceived by modern, bastardized versions of biblical translations and false ministry doctrines.

Jesus ONLY came for HIS people -- the Israelites, who had been lost over the centuries. They were lost geographcially, and also spiritually. He came for THEM, to save THEM.

In Matthew 13:10-13, Jesus tells his disciples why he only speaks in parables to the non-Israelites (including the people who lived then and were the ancestors of modern-day jews).

This is New Testament stuff. Even today, jews do not believe in the New Testament. They are the same today as they were 2,000 years ago.

God is the ultimate arbiter of the definition of a Jew.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek language. The writers of the New Testament did not use that word.

So, tell me where GOD says that these people were not jews.

Your claim, without any citation, is meaningless.

Who didn't know God? The Scribes and Pharisees.

The Scribs and Pharisees were following the Tradition of the Elders, WHICH IS JUDAISM.

Jesus called them out for it.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek, but we can determine who these people were by the fact that they followed Judaism, not Hebrewism, which was the Old Testament forerunner of Christianity (which did not exist until after Christ).

Judaism was the Tradition of the Elders (which later became the Talmud), and it was the jewish way of GETTING AROUND the Law of God in the Old Testament.

Who did Jesus tell this to for instruction? The Jews.

Wrong. Jesus was talking to his disciples, who were Israelites (possible except for Judas). Israelites were NOT the ancestors of modern jews.

That is the BIG matzah ball hanging out there where so many Christians have been deceived.

Jesus preached strictly to Jews, the lost tribe of Israel

This is where you -- and so many others -- are wrong.

The Israelites were NOT the jews.

Historical records and archeology confirms this.

When the Assyrians took the Israelites into captivity, they created records via carvings on stone tablets. Not just the Israelites, but the Canaanites and others, as well.

The drawings of the Canaanites were of people who had the hook nose and other physical features of modern-day jews (I know ... not ALL jews, but the jews who do are unique in this feature).

The drawings of the Israelites were those of White Europeans.

Historical records of those who wrote at the time, in various ways and for various purposes, wrote about the Israelite people as being White.

The Israelites became "lost" and after Assyrian and Babylonian captivity, some returned to Palestine, but most migrated north to the Caucasus Mountain region.

From there, the eventually emigrated to Europe, where they became known as the Caucasians.

God's promise to Abraham was that his descendents would be many, and they would (a) create many nations around the world, (b) have many kings, and (c) be a blessing to the world.

Only the White Caucasians have fulfilled this promise. They created nations all over the globe. They had many kings. And they invented almost everything that make life better and more pleasant for everyone on Earth, not just themselves.

The jews have never done any of this.

Salvation wasn't offered to gentiles until years after the resurrection.

Once again, the word "gentile" was not part of the Greek language.

The TRANSLATORS put that into the text of the Bible, long after the original scriptures were written.

In doing so, they have CHANGED THE MEANING of what the Bible actually said, originally.

The Old Testament was written in Hebrew. The New Testament was written in Aramaic, which was not understood outside of the area that Jesus lived.

When Christianity began to spread, it was translated into Greek, which was widely understood in Europe, which is where the Isrealites had migrated to (this is why Paul wrote all his letters to Europeans, and not to anyone else in the world).

Later, the Bible was translated into other European languages, including English.

The word "gentile" was not in the original Hebrew. The word used was "goi."

This word means "nation." "Goyim" was the plural.

It was the TRANSLATORS who mistranslated goi into gentile. They probably did this because they were forced to follow the Roman Catholic Church doctrine, or be accused of heresy, which was punished by death. The RCC had been infiltrated by anti-Christians whose agenda was to confuse Christians and destroy Christianity.

When the twins Esau and Jacob were at war in Rebekah's womb, God told her that she had two goyim in her womb -- two nations (not two non-jews).

Jacob was the father of all Israelites, so clearly "nation" could be the only translation.

There are numerous examples throughout the Bible.

In Greek, goi was translated to ethnos. Both words mean "nation," which is the correct translation. It has nothing to do with "non-jews." That was a jewish invention via mistranslation -- once Christianity started gaining popularity in Europe.

The word "gentile" is from the latin word "gentilis," which means "one who is not a Roman citizen." The word has nothing to do with jews. The modern concept that it does is a false concept.

Because gentile meant non-Roman citizen, the word began to be used to refer to pagans and others who were not Romans.

Over time, this morphed into non-jew, somehow.

But the original scriptures use Hebrew and Greek words to mean "nation."

And "nation" means a group of people who are related by blood, and live in a large community. It does not mean a government, country, or so-called "nation-state" like it is used today.

It is a racial term to describe a people who are of similar ethnic background, which clearly could not be ALL non-jews, since non-jews are of all races and ethnic backgrounds.

Jesus was a Jew. All 12 apostles were Jews.

Jesus was NOT a jew, and neither were his disciples, with the possible exception of Judas.

In historical letters written to Rome, complaining of this man who claims to be of God, and stories of his performing miracles, he was described as having blond hair, blue eyes, and was White.

Your local preacher will not talk about this because his seminary did not tell him, and he will not research anything on his own (just like modern doctors).

I'll cut to the chase because Jew haters aren't worth a wall of text

Well, if you are going to resort to ad hominem and personal attacks, rather than a rational discussion, then this will be my last post to you. You are not worth my time anymore than I am worth yours.

But I will post this for others to read, if they are interested in the topic.

It's obvious that if Jews were no longer a thing, and now they're only Christians

I never said that, and don't believe it. Your reference to Revelation is vague, non-specific, and therefore meaningless -- as is your entire post.

The fact that you make a statement and call it a fact, without fleshing it out to explain yourself, indicates that you might not have as deep an understanding as you think you do. That is common because modern churches are not much more than a few minutes of entertainment, a brief "sermon" about nothing really, and then more entertainment and coffee on your way out the door.

They don't actually dig into the ORIGINAL text of the scriptures and what they really mean. It's all very superficial, and the congregation feels good, but has learned nothing.

God said it. Revelation 2:9. Checkmate.

AGAIN ... you do not understand what you are reading. I mentioned Rev 2:9 and Rev 3:9 above.

These are two of the (many) mistransations of the modern Bible.

In your statement, you do what a lot of people do: You take one little snippet of a verse within a chapter of a book of the entire Bible, and take that snippet OUT OF CONTEXT, thereby changing the meaning entirely.

Anytime you read the word "jew" in any English version of any Bible, you have to realize that the word did not exist in the original languages. It is an English translation.

That begs the question: Is the translation correct or false (to satisfy the doctrines of the early Roman Catholic Church, who would kill you if you wrote/translated anything that was against the doctrine set by the bishops)?

In Rev 2:9, John is writing to the church/assembly of Smyrna. Smyrna was a community on the western coast of modern day Turkey. It was one Israelite writing to other Israelites (not jews).

https://bibleatlas.org/full/smyrna.htm

Of the 7 churches that John wrote to, only Smyrna and Philadelphia were not scolded for wrongdoing. The people of Smyrna were keeping The Law.

A correct translation from the original Greek of Rev 2:9 would be --

I know your tribulation and poverty (but you are wealthy), and the blasphemy from those saying for themselves to be Judaeans and they are not, but are a congregation of the Adversary.

They had little earthly wealth (they were living in poverty), but they had great spiritual wealth. The jews don't even believe the New Testament, so they do not have any spiritual wealth.

Judeans = The "jews" of the day were claiming to be Judahites, and therefore Israelites. Here, Jesus is telling the Isrealites that he knows their suffering at the hands of those who CLAIM to be Judahites/Israelites, but are not.

The way the jews were making this claim was that they were resident of the Roman province of Judea, and said they were Judeans, which was true due to their residence. But they also were implying a genetic link to being God's Chosen People, but they were not.

A good analogy would be that today, a Mexican can cross the US border into Texas and call himself a Texan. He might be illegally resident in Texas, but he is not a real Texan, and certainly not an American. Likewise, these jews were Judeans by residence, but they were not of Israel.

The Covenant went from Abrahams >> Isaac >> Jacob. But these "jews" were of the genetic lineage of Abrahams >> Isaac >> Esau/Edom (the jews today acknowledge this in their own texts). They were also mixed with Canaanites and Kenites.

They could never have been Israelites because they were not descendents of Jacob.

Congregation = people of a church, synagogue, or other temple.

Adversary = the word "Satan" means "Adversary" in Hebrew.

So, no ... you don't have check or mate. You only have a belief in a mistranslation of God's original word.

The term "Jew", as used in modern culture, is fluid ... It has also allowed people to suddenly consider themselves as a Jew.

Right. Jews today claim they can be a jew by (a) genetic line or (b) "jewish" by religious conversion.

But when they claim jewishness, they are talking about ethnicity. They themselves say they are not White, even if they look White. That is a genetic distinction, not a religious one.

Jews often misuse language to confuse people, and this is one of them. Another one is when they talk about the "Torah." They will say it means the first 5 books of the Bible, thereby making them similar to Christians.

But their own religous books also say the "Torah" is ALL of the knowlege -- written and unwritten -- of Judaism. The main one being the Talmud, which they don't like to talk about with non-jews, due to how anti-Christian and anti-Jesus it is.

But God created all things

No, Satan and the fallen angels also played a role.

Read Matthew 15:1-11.

Then, in Matthew 15:12-13 --

"12 Then came his disciples, and said unto him, Knowest thou that the Pharisees were offended, after they heard this saying?

"13 But he answered and said, Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath not planted, shall be rooted up."

So, God did NOT create "everything."

In the end, God will root up all things Satanic -- those things that God did NOT create -- and will separate the wheat from the tares.

Matthew 15:24, Jesus says --

"I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

So many Christians have been deceived by modern, bastardized versions of biblical translations and false ministry doctrines.

Jesus ONLY came for HIS people -- the Israelites, who had been lost over the centuries. They were lost geographcially, and also spiritually. He came for THEM, to save THEM.

In Matthew 13:10-13, Jesus tells his disciples why he only speaks in parables to the non-Israelites (including the people who lived then and were the ancestors of modern-day jews).

This is New Testament stuff. Even today, jews do not believe in the New Testament. They are the same today as they were 2,000 years ago.

God is the ultimate arbiter of the definition of a Jew.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek language. The writers of the New Testament did not use that word.

So, tell me where GOD says that these people were not jews.

Your claim, without any citation, is meaningless.

Who didn't know God? The Scribes and Pharisees.

The Scribs and Pharisees were following the Tradition of the Elders, WHICH IS JUDAISM.

Jesus called them out for it.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek, but we can determine who these people were by the fact that they followed Judaism, not Hebrewism, which was the Old Testament forerunner of Christianity (which did not exist until after Christ).

Judaism was the Tradition of the Elders (which later became the Talmud), and it was the jewish way of GETTING AROUND the Law of God in the Old Testament.

Who did Jesus tell this to for instruction? The Jews.

Wrong. Jesus was talking to his disciples, who were Israelites (possible except for Judas). Israelites were NOT the ancestors of modern jews.

That is the BIG matzah ball hanging out there where so many Christians have been deceived.

Jesus preached strictly to Jews, the lost tribe of Israel

This is where you -- and so many others -- are wrong.

The Israelites were NOT the jews.

Historical records and archeology confirms this.

When the Assyrians took the Israelites into captivity, they created records via carvings on stone tablets. Not just the Israelites, but the Canaanites and others, as well.

The drawings of the Canaanites were of people who had the hook nose and other physical features of modern-day jews (I know ... not ALL jews, but the jews who do are unique in this feature).

The drawings of the Israelites were those of White Europeans.

Historical records of those who wrote at the time, in various ways and for various purposes, wrote about the Israelite people as being White.

The Israelites became "lost" and after Assyrian and Babylonian captivity, some returned to Palestine, but most migrated north to the Caucasus Mountain region.

From there, the eventually emigrated to Europe, where they became known as the Caucasians.

God's promise to Abraham was that his descendents would be many, and they would (a) create many nations around the world, (b) have many kings, and (c) be a blessing to the world.

Only the White Caucasians have fulfilled this promise. They created nations all over the globe. They had many kings. And they invented almost everything that make life better and more pleasant for everyone on Earth, not just themselves.

The jews have never done any of this.

Salvation wasn't offered to gentiles until years after the resurrection.

Once again, the word "gentile" was not part of the Greek language.

The TRANSLATORS put that into the text of the Bible, long after the original scriptures were written.

In doing so, they have CHANGED THE MEANING of what the Bible actually said, originally.

The Old Testament was written in Hebrew. The New Testament was written in Aramaic, which was not understood outside of the area that Jesus lived.

When Christianity began to spread, it was translated into Greek, which was widely understood in Europe, which is where the Isrealites had migrated to (this is why Paul wrote all his letters to Europeans, and not to anyone else in the world).

Later, the Bible was translated into other European languages, including English.

The word "gentile" was not in the original Hebrew. The word used was "goi."

This word means "nation." "Goyim" was the plural.

It was the TRANSLATORS who mistranslated goi into gentile. They probably did this because they were forced to follow the Roman Catholic Church doctrine, or be accused of heresy, which was punished by death. The RCC had been infiltrated by anti-Christians whose agenda was to confuse Christians and destroy Christianity.

When the twins Esau and Jacob were at war in Rebekah's womb, God told her that she had two goyim in her womb -- two nations (not two non-jews).

Jacob was the father of all Israelites, so clearly "nation" could be the only translation.

There are numerous examples throughout the Bible.

In Greek, goi was translated to ethnos. Both words mean "nation," which is the correct translation. It has nothing to do with "non-jews." That was a jewish invention via mistranslation -- once Christianity started gaining popularity in Europe.

The word "gentile" is from the latin word "gentilis," which means "one who is not a Roman citizen." The word has nothing to do with jews. The modern concept that it does is a false concept.

Because gentile meant non-Roman citizen, the word began to be used to refer to pagans and others who were not Romans.

Over time, this morphed into non-jew, somehow.

But the original scriptures use Hebrew and Greek words to mean "nation."

And "nation" means a group of people who are related by blood, and live in a large community. It does not mean a government, country, or so-called "nation-state" like it is used today.

It is a racial term to describe a people who are of similar ethnic background, which clearly could not be ALL non-jews, since non-jews are of all races and ethnic backgrounds.

Jesus was a Jew. All 12 apostles were Jews.

Jesus was NOT a jew, and neither were his disciples, with the possible exception of Judas.

In historical letters written to Rome, complaining of this man who claims to be of God, and stories of his performing miracles, he was described as having blond hair, blue eyes, and was White.

Your local preacher will not talk about this because his seminary did not tell him, and he will not research anything on his own (just like modern doctors).

I'll cut to the chase because Jew haters aren't worth a wall of text

Well, if you are going to resort to ad hominem and personal attacks, rather than a rational discussion, then this will be my last post to you. You are not worth my time anymore than I am worth yours.

But I will post this for others to read, if they are interested in the topic.

It's obvious that if Jews were no longer a thing, and now they're only Christians

I never said that, and don't believe it. Your reference to Revelation is vague, non-specific, and therefore meaningless -- as is your entire post.

The fact that you make a statement and call it a fact, without fleshing it out to explain yourself, indicates that you might not have as deep an understanding as you think you do. That is common because modern churches are not much more than a few minutes of entertainment, a brief "sermon" about nothing really, and then more entertainment and coffee on your way out the door.

They don't actually dig into the ORIGINAL text of the scriptures and what they really mean. It's all very superficial, and the congregation feels good, but has learned nothing.

God said it. Revelation 2:9. Checkmate.

AGAIN ... you do not understand what you are reading. I mentioned Rev 2:9 and Rev 3:9 above.

These are two of the (many) mistransations of the modern Bible.

In your statement, you do what a lot of people do: You take one little snippet of a verse within a chapter of a book of the entire Bible, and take that snippet OUT OF CONTEXT, thereby changing the meaning entirely.

Anytime you read the word "jew" in any English version of any Bible, you have to realize that the word did not exist in the original languages. It is an English translation.

That begs the question: Is the translation correct or false (to satisfy the doctrines of the early Roman Catholic Church, who would kill you if you wrote/translated anything that was against the doctrine set by the bishops)?

In Rev 2:9, John is writing to the church/assembly of Smyrna. Smyrna was a community on the western coast of modern day Turkey. It was one Israelite writing to other Israelites (not jews).

https://bibleatlas.org/full/smyrna.htm

Of the 7 churches that John wrote to, only Smyrna and Philadelphia were not scolded for wrongdoing. The people of Smyrna were keeping The Law.

A correct translation from the original Greek of Rev 2:9 would be --

I know your tribulation and poverty (but you are wealthy), and the blasphemy from those saying for themselves to be Judaeans and they are not, but are a congregation of the Adversary.

They had little earthly wealth (they were living in poverty), but they had great spiritual wealth. The jews don't even believe the New Testament, so they do not have any spiritual wealth.

Judeans = The "jews" of the day were claiming to be Judahites, and therefore Israelites. Here, Jesus is telling the Isrealites that he knows their suffering at the hands of those who CLAIM to be Judahites/Israelites, but are not.

The way the jews were making this claim was that they were resident of the Roman province of Judea, and said they were Judeans, which was true due to their residence. But they also were implying a genetic link to being God's Chosen People, but they were not.

The Covenant went from Abrahams >> Isaac >> Jacob. But these "jews" were of the genetic lineage of Abrahams >> Isaac >> Esau/Edom (the jews today acknowledge this in their own texts). They were also mixed with Canaanites and Kenites.

They could never have been Israelites because they were not descendents of Jacob.

Congregation = people of a church, synagogue, or other temple.

Adversary = the word "Satan" means "Adversary" in Hebrew.

So, no ... you don't have check or mate. You only have a belief in a mistranslation of God's original word.

The term "Jew", as used in modern culture, is fluid ... It has also allowed people to suddenly consider themselves as a Jew.

Right. Jews today claim they can be a jew by (a) genetic line or (b) "jewish" by religious conversion.

But when they claim jewishness, they are talking about ethnicity. They themselves say they are not White, even if they look White. That is a genetic distinction, not a religious one.

Jews often misuse language to confuse people, and this is one of them. Another one is when they talk about the "Torah." They will say it means the first 5 books of the Bible, thereby making them similar to Christians.

But their own religous books also say the "Torah" is ALL of the knowlege -- written and unwritten -- of Judaism. The main one being the Talmud, which they don't like to talk about with non-jews, due to how anti-Christian and anti-Jesus it is.

But God created all things

No, Satan and the fallen angels also played a role.

Read Matthew 15:1-11.

Then, in Matthew 15:12-13 --

"12 Then came his disciples, and said unto him, Knowest thou that the Pharisees were offended, after they heard this saying?

"13 But he answered and said, Every plant, which my heavenly Father hath not planted, shall be rooted up."

So, God did NOT create "everything."

In the end, God will root up all things Satanic -- those things that God did NOT create -- and will separate the wheat from the tares.

Matthew 15:24, Jesus says --

"I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

So many Christians have been deceived by modern, bastardized versions of biblical translations and false ministry doctrines.

Jesus ONLY came for HIS people -- the Israelites, who had been lost over the centuries. They were lost geographcially, and also spiritually. He came for THEM, to save THEM.

In Matthew 13:10-13, Jesus tells his disciples why he only speaks in parables to the non-Israelites (including the people who lived then and were the ancestors of modern-day jews).

This is New Testament stuff. Even today, jews do not believe in the New Testament. They are the same today as they were 2,000 years ago.

God is the ultimate arbiter of the definition of a Jew.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek language. The writers of the New Testament did not use that word.

So, tell me where GOD says that these people were not jews.

Your claim, without any citation, is meaningless.

Who didn't know God? The Scribes and Pharisees.

The Scribs and Pharisees were following the Tradition of the Elders, WHICH IS JUDAISM.

Jesus called them out for it.

The word "Jew" did not exist in the Greek, but we can determine who these people were by the fact that they followed Judaism, not Hebrewism, which was the Old Testament forerunner of Christianity (which did not exist until after Christ).

Judaism was the Tradition of the Elders (which later became the Talmud), and it was the jewish way of GETTING AROUND the Law of God in the Old Testament.

Who did Jesus tell this to for instruction? The Jews.

Wrong. Jesus was talking to his disciples, who were Israelites (possible except for Judas). Israelites were NOT the ancestors of modern jews.

That is the BIG matzah ball hanging out there where so many Christians have been deceived.

Jesus preached strictly to Jews, the lost tribe of Israel

This is where you -- and so many others -- are wrong.

The Israelites were NOT the jews.

Historical records and archeology confirms this.

When the Assyrians took the Israelites into captivity, they created records via carvings on stone tablets. Not just the Israelites, but the Canaanites and others, as well.

The drawings of the Canaanites were of people who had the hook nose and other physical features of modern-day jews (I know ... not ALL jews, but the jews who do are unique in this feature).

The drawings of the Israelites were those of White Europeans.

Historical records of those who wrote at the time, in various ways and for various purposes, wrote about the Israelite people as being White.

The Israelites became "lost" and after Assyrian and Babylonian captivity, some returned to Palestine, but most migrated north to the Caucasus Mountain region.

From there, the eventually emigrated to Europe, where they became known as the Caucasians.

God's promise to Abraham was that his descendents would be many, and they would (a) create many nations around the world, (b) have many kings, and (c) be a blessing to the world.

Only the White Caucasians have fulfilled this promise. They created nations all over the globe. They had many kings. And they invented almost everything that make life better and more pleasant for everyone on Earth, not just themselves.

The jews have never done any of this.

Salvation wasn't offered to gentiles until years after the resurrection.

Once again, the word "gentile" was not part of the Greek language.

The TRANSLATORS put that into the text of the Bible, long after the original scriptures were written.

In doing so, they have CHANGED THE MEANING of what the Bible actually said, originally.

The Old Testament was written in Hebrew. The New Testament was written in Aramaic, which was not understood outside of the area that Jesus lived.

When Christianity began to spread, it was translated into Greek, which was widely understood in Europe, which is where the Isrealites had migrated to (this is why Paul wrote all his letters to Europeans, and not to anyone else in the world).

Later, the Bible was translated into other European languages, including English.

The word "gentile" was not in the original Hebrew. The word used was "goi."

This word means "nation." "Goyim" was the plural.

It was the TRANSLATORS who mistranslated goi into gentile. They probably did this because they were forced to follow the Roman Catholic Church doctrine, or be accused of heresy, which was punished by death. The RCC had been infiltrated by anti-Christians whose agenda was to confuse Christians and destroy Christianity.

When the twins Esau and Jacob were at war in Rebekah's womb, God told her that she had two goyim in her womb -- two nations (not two non-jews).

Jacob was the father of all Israelites, so clearly "nation" could be the only translation.

There are numerous examples throughout the Bible.

In Greek, goi was translated to ethnos. Both words mean "nation," which is the correct translation. It has nothing to do with "non-jews." That was a jewish invention via mistranslation -- once Christianity started gaining popularity in Europe.

The word "gentile" is from the latin word "gentilis," which means "one who is not a Roman citizen." The word has nothing to do with jews. The modern concept that it does is a false concept.

Because gentile meant non-Roman citizen, the word began to be used to refer to pagans and others who were not Romans.

Over time, this morphed into non-jew, somehow.

But the original scriptures use Hebrew and Greek words to mean "nation."

And "nation" means a group of people who are related by blood, and live in a large community. It does not mean a government, country, or so-called "nation-state" like it is used today.

It is a racial term to describe a people who are of similar ethnic background, which clearly could not be ALL non-jews, since non-jews are of all races and ethnic backgrounds.

Jesus was a Jew. All 12 apostles were Jews.

Jesus was NOT a jew, and neither were his disciples, with the possible exception of Judas.

In historical letters written to Rome, complaining of this man who claims to be of God, and stories of his performing miracles, he was described as having blond hair, blue eyes, and was White.

Your local preacher will not talk about this because his seminary did not tell him, and he will not research anything on his own (just like modern doctors).

I'll cut to the chase because Jew haters aren't worth a wall of text

Well, if you are going to resort to ad hominem and personal attacks, rather than a rational discussion, then this will be my last post to you. You are not worth my time anymore than I am worth yours.

But I will post this for others to read, if they are interested in the topic.

It's obvious that if Jews were no longer a thing, and now they're only Christians

I never said that, and don't believe it. Your reference to Revelation is vague, non-specific, and therefore meaningless -- as is your entire post.

The fact that you make a statement and call it a fact, without fleshing it out to explain yourself, indicates that you might not have as deep an understanding as you think you do. That is common because modern churches are not much more than a few minutes of entertainment, a brief "sermon" about nothing really, and then more entertainment and coffee on your way out the door.

They don't actually dig into the ORIGINAL text of the scriptures and what they really mean. It's all very superficial, and the congregation feels good, but has learned nothing.

God said it. Revelation 2:9. Checkmate.

AGAIN ... you do not understand what you are reading. I mentioned Rev 2:9 and Rev 3:9 above.

These are two of the (many) mistransations of the modern Bible.

In your statement, you do what a lot of people do: You take one little snippet of a verse without a chapter of a book of the entire Bible, and take that snippet OUT OF CONTEXT, thereby changing the meaning entirely.

Anytime you read the word "jew" in any English version of any Bible, you have to realize that the word did not exist in the original languages. It is an English translation.

That begs the question: Is the translation correct or false (to satisfy the doctrines of the early Roman Catholic Church, who would kill you if you wrote/translated anything that was against the doctrine set by the bishops)?

In Rev 2:9, John is writing to the church/assembly of Smyrna. Smyrna was a community on the western coast of modern day Turkey. It was one Israelite writing to other Israelites (not jews).

https://bibleatlas.org/full/smyrna.htm

Of the 7 churches that John wrote to, only Smyrna and Philadelphia were not scolded for wrongdoing. The people of Smyrna were keeping The Law.

A correct translation from the original Greek of Rev 2:9 would be --

I know your tribulation and poverty (but you are wealthy), and the blasphemy from those saying for themselves to be Judaeans and they are not, but are a congregation of the Adversary.

They had little earthly wealth (they were living in poverty), but they had great spiritual wealth. The jews don't even believe the New Testament, so they do not have any spiritual wealth.

Judeans = The "jews" of the day were claiming to be Judahites, and therefore Israelites. Here, Jesus is telling the Isrealites that he knows their suffering at the hands of those who CLAIM to be Judahites/Israelites, but are not.

The way the jews were making this claim was that they were resident of the Roman province of Judea, and said they were Judeans, which was true due to their residence. But they also were implying a genetic link to being God's Chosen People, but they were not.

The Covenant went from Abrahams >> Isaac >> Jacob. But these "jews" were of the genetic lineage of Abrahams >> Isaac >> Esau/Edom (the jews today acknowledge this in their own texts). They were also mixed with Canaanites and Kenites.

They could never have been Israelites because they were not descendents of Jacob.

Congregation = people of a church, synagogue, or other temple.

Adversary = the word "Satan" means "Adversary" in Hebrew.

So, no ... you don't have check or mate. You only have a belief in a mistranslation of God's original word.