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Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba? That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Solomon (King Solomon). Solomon was not the product of sin, and God loved him. But God hates sin, and He hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendants. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to not have intercourse (i.e. sex) with those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDANTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

That's the KJV.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible") --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethites, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understanding, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and if the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme (which it is), then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba? That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Solomon (King Solomon). Solomon was not the product of sin, and God loved him. But God hates sin, and He hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendants. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to not have intercourse (i.e. sex) with those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDANTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

That's the KJV.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible") --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethites, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and if the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme (which it is), then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba? That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Solomon (King Solomon). Solomon was not the product of sin, and God loved him. But God hates sin, and He hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendants. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to not have intercourse (i.e. sex) with those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDANTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

That's the KJV.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible") --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethites, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme (which it is), then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba? That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Solomon (King Solomon). Solomon was not the product of sin, and God loved him. But God hates sin, and He hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendants. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to not have intercourse (i.e. sex) with those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDANTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

That's the KJV.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible") --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme (which it is), then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba? That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Solomon (King Solomon). So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendants. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to not have intercourse (i.e. sex) with those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDANTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

That's the KJV.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible") --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme (which it is), then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba. That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Salomon. So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendants. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to not have intercourse (i.e. sex) with those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDANTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

That's the KJV.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible") --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme (which it is), then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba. That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Salomon. So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendants. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to not have intercourse (i.e. sex) with those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDANTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

That's the KJV.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible") --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme, then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba. That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Salomon. So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendants. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to not have intercourse (i.e. sex) with those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDANTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible) --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme, then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba. That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Salomon. So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendants. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to not have intercourse (i.e. sex) with those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDENTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible) --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme, then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

All "non-jews" is NOT a "nation." It is a mixed group of people. Since "gentile" is taken from "goy" and "ethnos," both of which mean "nation," we can absolutely conclude that "gentile" as it is used today does NOT mean a "nation," and therefore it is NOT a true translation of goy or ethnos.

It is wrong, and your source ignores that fact.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba. That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Salomon. So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendents. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.>

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to stay away from those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDENTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible) --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme, then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. So, I am not going to respond to each and every post that some group of people put together (probably over several years), and wrote an entire book (or several volumes). But I will address a few points.

The word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba. That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Salomon. So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendents. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.>

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to stay away from those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDENTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible) --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme, then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. You just had a hissy fit over "muh racism," and went to some source you thought was an authority, and cut and fucking paste. So, I am not going to reapond to each and every post that some group of people put together, probably over several years, to write an entire book or several volumes. But I will address a few points.

Second, the word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to where they previously lived (or their parents and grandparents lived).

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. There were a lot of Edomites (today's jews) living there, as they had moved in when the Babylonian capture left the territory mostly empty.

This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak, not just true Israelites. The Pharisees were mostly Edomites. These were the people constantly arguing with Jesus, as they were trying to assert the truth of their Talmud (the "Tradition of the Elders," and not the Old Testament).

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Often in the NT, the word "jew" is used where "Judean" was actually used. Judean was anyone who lived in Judea, just like "Texan" can be anyone who lives in Texas, including illegal alien Mexicans.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba. That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Salomon. So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendents. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.>

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to stay away from those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDENTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible) --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme, then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: None provided.

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. You just had a hissy fit over "muh racism," and went to some source you thought was an authority, and cut and fucking paste. So, I am not going to reapond to each and every post that some group of people put together, probably over several years, to write an entire book or several volumes. But I will address a few points.

Second, the word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe.

This is why Paul wrote ALL of his letters to his fellow White Europeans. He said himself he was an Israelite and he was writing to his Israelite bretheren. He was not writing to jews. He was writing to his fellow Christians.

Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to what had since become Judea.

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak.

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba. That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Salomon. So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendents. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.>

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to stay away from those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDENTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible) --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme, then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score
Reason: Original

Incredibly misguided racism on display here.

The jews are racist. Agree?

No, of course you don't, because you have been brainwashed to believe anything they say. But when someone else says something very similar, you call "muh racism."

Further, you have been brainwashed into believing that only Whites can be racist. You bought that nonsense: hook, line and sinker.

BTW, a scient-ist loves science; a pian-ist loves the piano; a rac-ist loves his race. Just like the jews and blacks do.

All of your citations are from modern, English sources, that have been cleansed of the original words and meanings.

Therefore, they are not valid sources.

Go to the originals, not the modern, modified ones.

But let's take a closer look at one of those passages:

The Gentiles were far less sharply differentiated from the Israelites in Old Testament than in New Testament times. Under Old Testament regulations they were simply non-Israelites, not from the stock of Abraham, but they were not hated or despised for that reason, and were to be treated almost on a plane of equality, except certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse. The Gentile stranger enjoyed the hospitality of the Israelite who was commanded to love him (Deu 10:19), to sympathize with him, “For ye know the heart of the stranger, seeing ye were strangers in the land of Egypt” (Exo 23:9 the King James Version). The Kenites were treated almost as brethren, especially the children of Rechab (Jdg 1:16; Jdg 5:24; Jer 35). Uriah the Hittite was a trusted warrior of David (2 Sam 11); Ittai the Gittite was captain of David's guard (2Sa 18:2); Araunah the Jebusite was a respected resident of Jerusalem.

First off, the only thing you did here was a cut-and-paste job. These are not your own words, and you did not analyze it at all. You just had a hissy fit over "muh racism," and went to some source you thought was an authority, and cut and fucking paste. So, I am not going to reapond to each and every post that some group of people put together, probably over several years, to write an entire book or several volumes. But I will address a few points.

Second, the word "Gentiles" was not in the Bible. OT was "goy/goyim" and NT was "ethnos." In Latin it was "gentilis." If your source does not address that (and it does not), then it is questionable from the start.

The reason there was "less differentiation" (NT vs OT) is because when Jesus was teaching, he was in Judea, a Roman province. The people who lived there were mixed society (muh diverse culture). Most of the Israelites were long gone, as most of them had been captured, sent to Assyria, and never returned. They moved onward to the north and then west into Europe. Those who were living in Jersulem at the time of the Babylonian captivity were taken to Babylon, along with non-Israelites, and SOME of them returned to what had since become Judea.

Judea became a Roman province in 6 AD. So by the time Jesus was teaching, it was a mixed society, controlled by the Romans. This is why Jesus at times would speak to the "multitudes." It meant anyone and everyone who lived in the area and wanted to hear Him speak.

The NT has been altered regarding the use of the word "Jew" and "Gentile" in the English versions of the Bible. These words were not in the original NT scripture. Your sources do not know, or hide, that fact.

Regarding "... certain tribes in Canaan with regard to whom there were special regulations of non-intercourse," Why did those special regulations exist? It was because Canaanites were a cursed people, and God wanted His people to stay away from them. They were genetically defective. This was due to the incest in their lineage. Ham had sex with his own mother, which is incest. The product of that was Canaan. His descendants were the Cananites, and they were all a product of sin.

Canaan himself did nothing wrong. But he was the product of his father's sin. Remember when David had sex with Bathsheba. That was an act of adultery, which is sin. God hated the act, and He hated the product of that act, which was her baby. God made the child sick and it died. But later, Bathsheba's husband died, and David took her into his family. They had another child, which God loved. That was Salomon. So, God hates the product of sin.

This is why Canaan was cursed, and so were his descendents. Later, Esau, who was a pure blooded Hebrew/Semite/Adamite would race mix with the Canaanites and Hittites (who were also part of the Canaanite family tree). This mixing created the Edomites, who are today's jews.>

THIS is why God wanted His Chosen to stay away from those Canaanites.

Regarding "strangers" and Deuteronomy 10. Your quote leaves out the full context (and this happens all the time -- and you didn't catch it, because you did nothing but cut-and-paste, with no thoughts of your own.

Deut 10:

12 And now, Israel, what doth the Lord thy God require of thee ...

Moses is talking to the Israelites, telling them what God says he wants of them.

13 To keep the commandments of the Lord, and his statutes, which I command thee this day for thy good

15 ... the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people

Moses is saying that the Israelite people he is speaking to are the GENETIC DESCENDENTS of the people that God chose above all others. There were many nations in the world, but THIS nation (race; family tree) were chosen.

17 For the Lord your God is God of gods, and Lord of lords, a great God, a mighty, and a terrible, which regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward:

18 He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment.

19 Love ye therefore the stranger: for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt.

Deut 10:17-19 is confusing in the KJV of the Bible. If that is the ONLY English version you read, then you will be confused all the time.

Let's look at the Expanded Bible version, which is quite different (but both are "the Bible) --

17 The Lord your God is God of all gods and Lord of all lords. He is the great God, who is strong and ·wonderful [awesome]. He does not ·take sides [show favoritism/partiality], and he will not ·be talked into doing evil [take a bribe].

18 He ·helps [grants justice to] orphans and widows, and he loves ·foreigners [resident aliens] and gives them food and clothes.

19 You also must love ·foreigners [resident aliens], because you were ·foreigners [resident aliens] in Egypt.

It should be immediately obvious that different English versions of the Bible are somewhat different in their translations of the original text.

THAT SHOULD BE YOUR FIRST CLUE.

The next thing to understand is history and archeology. It has been proven via DNA of mummies that at the time of Moses, the Egyptians were White.

Today, they are Arabs (mixed race of people), but back during the times of Moses and the pyramids, the Egyptian people were White. As the Arabs moved in, the Whites moved out ("White Flight" was real back then, too).

So, the Israelites were strangers in Egypt, and here are called "resident aliens." All that Deut 10:19 is saying is to be kind to strangers, just as they have been kind to you ("Do unto others as you would have done to you.").

But here, you have two families/tribes of White people: The Israelites, and the Egyptians. They are kin, going back to Adam, but their family trees are of different branches.

If you don't know who is who in the Bible, you cannot make sense of it.

Regading the Hittites, they were a family tree within the family tree of Canaanites. The Hittites were also called Hethies, after Heth, son of Canaan.

The Israelites were not commanded to have nothing at all to do with these people. They were just supposed to not breed with them, because they were of a different family tree.

When Esau did mix with them, look what happened. A new people were created (Edomites).

So, your sources look only at the surface level of what SOME of the English versions of the Bible say, and they go no deeper than that.

The result is a shallow understaning, which is to say a misunderstanding.

You think it's racist, but you don't think it is racist for jews to push their viewpoint.

Odd.

Think about it: If a group of jews had the Talmud as their guide (which they do), and we know that the Talmud is hateful of Christianity in the extreme, then what better way to carry out the teachings of the Talmud than to infiltrate Christianity and distort its meaning?

Maybe these concepts give you cognative dissonance.

You don't seem like someone who is willing to consider both sides of this topic. So be it. I really don't care.

Others reading can think for themselves and look into it.

Also, imagine what this understanding of the Bible means. It means we were lied to about EVERYTHING, including what the Bible says.

And it means the Whites, who have been vilified for a long, long time, were always God's people. Secular history demonstrates this, as the Whites (and not he jews) have fulfilled God's promises, even though they still fail to live up to The Law.

If I am right and the jews are wrong, it changes everything.

5 days ago
1 score