Then who "governs" D.C.?

According the the Organic Act of 1871, the municipal corporation we now call "Washington D.C." was created with the Board of Directors (BoD) of that corporation being the exact same people as the people who are also the Board of Directors of the United States Government. In other words, the "President of the US Govt." is also the exact same person who is CEO of the D.C. municipality. Similar correspondent positions exist for the Senate, House, and Judicial branch of the US Govt <--> DC municipality. This changed a little bit in the 1970s (I don't remember the exact year off the top of my head) in that they created a Mayor and City Council to act as a governing body for D.C. municipal, but they act at the pleasure, and ultimately at the direction of the original BoD set up by the 1871 act.

Who's laws apply?

The Laws of US Govt. and D.C. Corp both apply to the D.C.

Can Trump be held criminally liable for a US Federal Republic crime in D.C.?

Yes, because they serve as the seat of law for both corporations.

The governors of D.C. have Jurisdiction of everything in D.C. They happen to be the same people as the people who run US Govt though, so it's really moot.

Trump was a resident of D.C. and located in D.C. on Jan 6. So, again what jurisdiction governs?

It depends on which governing body is claiming grievance and which law is supposed to have been broken. (Laws are specific to Jurisdictions, though it is possible that both entities have the exact same law, still, it will be explicitly stated on the suit).

There is defiantly a separation somehow.

Absolutely. Hopefully I have cleared that up? If not, ask more questions.

If Trump is in D.C. and a resident of D.C. how can he be held liable for a U.S. Republic crime if he's in a "foreign" (separate sovereign) state?

Both US Govt law and DC law apply in DC. By Treaty (Constitution) he can be extradited to DC from Florida (or wherever he is) to be held accountable in DC IF AND ONLY IF he is in violation of Federal law. If he is in violation of DC law there is no such treaty (as far as i know), and thus he could only be extradited to DC if he agrees to be (or the State performs the extradition itself).

Having said that, that may be part of the treaty as well. I'm not sure on that. That's how it works with countries, but there may be interstate extradition treaties within Federal law with provisions for DC specific law. I haven't looked into that.

Then who "governs" D.C.?

According the the Organic Act of 1871, the municipal corporation we now call "Washington D.C." was created with the Board of Directors (BoD) of that corporation being the exact same people as the people who are also the Board of Directors of the United States Government. In other words, the "President of the US Govt." is also the exact same person who is CEO of the D.C. municipality. Similar correspondent positions exist for the Senate, House, and Judicial branch of the US Govt <--> DC municipality. This changed a little bit in the 1970s (I don't remember the exact year off the top of my head) in that they created a Mayor and City Council to act as a governing body for D.C. municipal, but they act at the pleasure, and ultimately at the direction of the original BoD set up by the 1871 act.

Who's laws apply?

The Laws of US Govt. and D.C. Corp both apply to the D.C.

Can Trump be held criminally liable for a US Federal Republic crime in D.C.?

Yes, because they serve as the seat of law for both corporations.

The governors of D.C. have Jurisdiction of everything in D.C. They happen to be the same people as the people who run US Govt though, so it's really moot.

Trump was a resident of D.C. and located in D.C. on Jan 6. So, again what jurisdiction governs?

It depends on which governing body is claiming grievance and which law is supposed to have been broken. (Laws are specific to Jurisdictions, though it is possible that both entities have the exact same law, still, it will be explicitly stated on the suit).

There is defiantly a separation somehow.

Absolutely. Hopefully I have cleared that up? If not, ask more questions.

If Trump is in D.C. and a resident of D.C. how can he be held liable for a U.S. Republic crime if he's in a "foreign" (separate sovereign) state?

Both US Govt law and DC law apply in DC. By Treaty (Constitution) he can be extradited to DC from Florida (or wherever he is) to be held accountable in DC IF AND ONLY IF he is in violation of Federal law. If he is in violation of DC law there is no such treaty (as far as i know), and thus he could only be extradited to DC if he agrees to be (or the State performs the extradition itself).

Having said that, that may be part of the treaty as well. I'm not sure on that. That's how it works with countries, but there may be interstate extradition treaties within Federal law with provisions for DC already. I haven't looked into that.

Then who "governs" D.C.?

According the the Organic Act of 1871, the municipal corporation we now call "Washington D.C." was created with the Board of Directors (BoD) of that corporation being the exact same people as the people who are also the Board of Directors of the United States Government. In other words, the "President of the US Govt." is also the exact same person who is CEO of the D.C. municipality. Similar correspondent positions exist for the Senate, House, and Judicial branch of the US Govt <--> DC municipality. This changed a little bit in the 1970s (I don't remember the exact year off the top of my head) in that they created a Mayor and City Council to act as a governing body for D.C. municipal, but they act at the pleasure, and ultimately at the direction of the original BoD set up by the 1871 act.

Who's laws apply?

The Laws of US Govt. and D.C. Corp both apply to the D.C.

Can Trump be held criminally liable for a US Federal Republic crime in D.C.?

Yes, because they serve as the seat of law for both corporations.

The governors of D.C. have Jurisdiction of everything in D.C. They happen to be the same people as the people who run US Govt though, so it's really moot.

Trump was a resident of D.C. and located in D.C. on Jan 6. So, again what jurisdiction governs?

It depends on which governing body is claiming grievance and which law is supposed to have been broken. (Laws are specific to Jurisdictions, though it is possible that both entities have the exact same law, still, it will be explicitly stated on the suit).

There is defiantly a separation somehow.

Absolutely. Hopefully I have cleared that up? If not, ask more questions.

If Trump is in D.C. and a resident of D.C. how can he be held liable for a U.S. Republic crime if he's in a "foreign" (separate sovereign) state?

Both US Govt law and DC law apply in DC. By Treaty (Constitution) he can be extradited to DC from Florida (or wherever he is) to be held accountable in DC IF AND ONLY IF he is in violation of Federal law. If he is in violation of DC law there is no such treaty (as far as i know), and thus he could only be extradited to DC if he agrees to be (or the State performs the extradition itself).

Having said that, that may be part of the treaty as well. I'm not sure on that. That's how it works with countries, but there may be interstate extradition treaties within the Federal with provisions for DC already. I haven't looked into that.

Then who "governs" D.C.?

According the the Organic Act of 1871, the municipal corporation we now call "Washington D.C." was created with the Board of Directors (BoD) of that corporation being the exact same people as the people who are also the Board of Directors of the United States Government. In other words, the "President of the US Govt." is also the exact same person who is CEO of the D.C. municipality. Similar correspondent positions exist for the Senate, House, and Judicial branch of the US Govt <--> DC municipality. This changed a little bit in the 1970s (I don't remember the exact year off the top of my head) in that they created a Mayor and City Council to act as a governing body for D.C. municipal, but they act at the pleasure, and ultimately at the direction of the original BoD set up by the 1871 act.

Who's laws apply?

The Laws of US Govt. and D.C. Corp both apply to the D.C.

Can Trump be held criminally liable for a US Federal Republic crime in D.C.?

Yes, because they serve as the seat of law for both corporations.

The governors of D.C. have Jurisdiction of everything in D.C. They happen to be the same people as the people who run US Govt though, so it's really moot.

Trump was a resident of D.C. and located in D.C. on Jan 6. So, again what jurisdiction governs?

It depends on which governing body is claiming grievance and which law is supposed to have been broken. (Laws are specific to Jurisdictions, though it is possible that both entities have the exact same law, still, it will be explicitly stated on the suit).

There is defiantly a separation somehow.

Absolutely. Hopefully I have cleared that up? If not, ask more questions.

If Trump is in D.C. and a resident of D.C. how can he be held liable for a U.S. Republic crime if he's in a "foreign" (separate sovereign) state?

Both US Govt law and DC law apply in DC. By Treaty (Constitution) he can be extradited to DC from Florida (or wherever he is) to be held accountable in DC IF AND ONLY IF he is in violation of Federal law. If he is in violation of DC law there is no such treaty (as far as i know), and thus he could only be extradited to DC if he agrees to be (or the State performs the extradition itself).

Then who "governs" D.C.?

According the the Organic Act of 1871, the municipal corporation we now call "Washington D.C." was created with the Board of Directors (BoD) of that corporation being the exact same people as the people who are also the Board of Directors of the United States Government. In other words, the "President of the US Govt." is also the exact same person who is CEO of the D.C. municipality. Similar correspondent positions exist for the Senate, House, and Judicial branch of the US Govt <--> DC municipality. This changed a little bit in the 1970s (I don't remember the exact year off the top of my head) in that they created a Mayor and City Council to act as a governing body for D.C. municipal, but they act at the pleasure, and ultimately at the direction of the original BoD set up by the 1871 act.

Who's laws apply?

The Laws of US Govt. and D.C. Corp both apply to the D.C.

Can Trump be held criminally liable for a US Federal Republic crime in D.C.?

Yes, because they serve as the seat of law for both corporations.

The governors of D.C. have Jurisdiction of everything in D.C. They happen to be the same people as the people who run US Govt though, so it's really moot.

Trump was a resident of D.C. and located in D.C. on Jan 6. So, again what jurisdiction governs?

It depends on which governing body is claiming grievance and which law is supposed to have been broken. (Laws are specific to Jurisdictions, though it is possible that both entities have the exact same law, still, it will be explicitly stated on the suit).

There is defiantly a separation somehow.

Absolutely. Hopefully I have cleared that up? If not, ask more questions.

If Trump is in D.C. and a resident of D.C. how can he be held liable for a U.S. Republic crime if he's in a "foreign" (separate sovereign) state?

Both US Govt law and DC law apply in DC. By Treaty (Constitution) he can be extradited to DC from Florida (or wherever he is) to be held accountable in DC IF AND ONLY IF he is in violation of Federal law. If he is in violation of DC law there is no such treaty (as far as i know), and thus he could only be extradited to DC if he agrees to be (or the State performs the action itself).

Then who "governs" D.C.?

According the the Organic Act of 1871, the municipal corporation we now call "Washington D.C." was created with the Board of Directors (BoD) of that corporation being the exact same people as the people who are also the Board of Directors of the United States Government. In other words, the "President of the US Govt." is also the exact same person who is CEO of the D.C. municipality. Similar correspondent positions exist for the Senate, House, and Judicial branch of the US Govt <--> DC municipality. This changed a little bit in the 1970s (I don't remember the exact year off the top of my head) in that they created a Mayor and City Council to act as a governing body for D.C. municipal, but they act at the pleasure, and ultimately at the direction of the original BoD set up by the 1871 act.

Who's laws apply?

The Laws of US Govt. and D.C. Corp both apply to the D.C.

Can Trump be held criminally liable for a US Federal Republic crime in D.C.?

Yes, because they serve as the seat of law for both corporations.

The governors of D.C. have Jurisdiction of everything in D.C. They happen to be the same people as the people who run US Govt though, so it's really moot.

Trump was a resident of D.C. and located in D.C. on Jan 6. So, again what jurisdiction governs?

It depends on which governing body is claiming grievance and which law is supposed to have been broken. (Laws are specific to Jurisdictions, though it is possible that both entities have the exact same law, still, it will be explicitly stated on the suit).

There is defiantly a separation somehow.

Absolutely. Hopefully I have cleared that up? If not, ask more questions.

If Trump is in D.C. and a resident of D.C. how can he be held liable for a U.S. Republic crime if he's in a "foreign" (separate sovereign) state?

Both US Govt law and DC law apply in DC. By Treaty (Constitution) he can be extradited to DC from Florida (or wherever he is) to be held accountable in DC IF he is in violation of Federal law. If it is DC law there is no such treaty (as far as i know).

Then who "governs" D.C.?

According the the Organic Act of 1871, the municipal corporation we now call "Washington D.C." was created with the Board of Directors (BoD) of that corporation being the exact same people as the people who are also the Board of Directors of the United States Government. In other words, the "President of the US Govt." is also the exact same person who is CEO of the D.C. municipality. Similar correspondent positions exist for the Senate, House, and Judicial branch of the US Govt <--> DC municipality. This changed a little bit in the 1970s (I don't remember the exact year off the top of my head) in that they created a Mayor and City Council to act as a governing body for D.C. municipal, but they act at the pleasure, and ultimately at the direction of the original BoD set up by the 1871 act.

Who's laws apply?

The Laws of US Govt. and D.C. Corp both apply to the D.C.

Can Trump be held criminally liable for a US Federal Republic crime in D.C.?

Yes, because they serve as the seat of law for both corporations.

The governors of D.C. have Jurisdiction of everything in D.C. They happen to be the same people as the people who run US Govt though, so it's really moot.

Trump was a resident of D.C. and located in D.C. on Jan 6. So, again what jurisdiction governs?

It depends on which governing body is claiming grievance and which law is supposed to have been broken. (Laws are specific to Jurisdictions, though it is possible that both entities have the exact same law, still, it will be explicitly stated on the suit).

There is defiantly a separation somehow.

Absolutely. Hopefully I have cleared that up? If not, ask more questions.

If Trump is in D.C. and a resident of D.C. how can he be held liable for a U.S. Republic crime if he's in a "foreign" (separate sovereign) state?

Both US Govt law and DC law apply in DC. By Treaty (Constitution) he can be extradited to DC from Florida (or wherever he is) to be held accountable in DC.

Then who "governs" D.C.?

According the the Organic Act of 1871, the municipal corporation we now call "Washington D.C." was created with the Board of Directors (BoD) of that corporation being the exact same people as the people who are also the Board of Directors of the United States Government. In other words, the "President of the US Govt." is also the exact same person who is CEO of the D.C. municipality. Similar correspondent positions exist for the Senate, House, and Judicial branch of the US Govt <--> DC municipality. This changed a little bit in the 1970s (I don't remember the exact year off the top of my head) in that they created a Mayor and City Council to act as a governing body for D.C. municipal, but they act at the pleasure, and ultimately at the direction of the original BoD set up by the 1871 act.

Who's laws apply?

The Laws of US Govt. and D.C. Corp both apply to the D.C.

Can Trump be held criminally liable for a US Federal Republic crime in D.C.?

Yes, because they serve as the seat of law for both corporations.

The governors of D.C. have Jurisdiction of everything in D.C. They happen to be the same people as the people who run US Govt though, so it's really moot.

Trump was a resident of D.C. and located in D.C. on Jan 6. So, again what jurisdiction governs?

It depends on which governing body is claiming grievance and which law is supposed to have been broken. (Laws are specific to Jurisdictions, though it is possible that both entities have the exact same law, still, it will be explicitly stated on the suit).

There is defiantly a separation somehow.

Absolutely. Hopefully I have cleared that up? If not, ask more questions.

If Trump is in D.C. and a resident of D.C. how can he be held liable for a U.S. Republic crime if he's in a "foreign" (separate sovereign) state?

Both US Govt law and DC law apply in DC.