I'd love to get some clarification on everyone's interpretation on the DoD manual and how chapter 11 is an indicator that the military is in control. Every time I look at infographics I'm on board but then I read the text itself and lose my thought process. I want to figure out what I'm missing.
My rough understanding is that with Biden in the white house, and he is a traitor, then our country is considered invaded. Then 11.3 says that martial law ends once the military restores order, and 11.4 gives the military the right to govern in the interim. Is that right?
This is where I get lost:
*11.2.2 says *
Territory is considered occupied when it is actually placed under the authority of hostile forces
This definition matches with the Hague IV definition (article 42).
11.3 END OF OCCUPATION AND DURATION OF GC OBLIGATIONS
11.3 1 says
... In particular, as discussed below, the status of belligerent occupation ceases when the invader no longer factually governs the occupied territory or when a hostile relationship no longer exists...
... However, an Occupying Power is not permitted, under the law of belligerent occupation, to annex occupied territory.
11.3.2 speaks to the Geneva Convention and doesn't seem to apply in this situation.
11.4.1 says
The right to govern the territory of the enemy during its military occupation is one of the incidents of war. By the fact of occupation (i.e., the Occupying Power’s established power over occupied territory), the Occupying Power is conferred the authority to exercise some of the rights of sovereignty.
So I guess my question is, does everything really meet all the definitions for this theory to succeed? I promise I'm not a high effort concern troll, this has been keeping me up all night.
Does Biden's traitorous actions constitute "hostile forces"? It's not defined in the manual so I imagine it could be interpreted like that. But is there (or maybe where is) a line between corrupt sell out unpatriotic politician vs. officially a hostile force? Does being in China's payroll count or does he have to officially be a Chinese agent?
Depending on where the definition of "hostile forces" falls, I don't know if there is enough to say we are occupied. But I swear I remember Pompeo tweeting China was already in our borders, and now I can't find it.
Is the missing link here that DC is technically it's own little entity and the National Guard have already begun an occupation?
I think I get lost in the terminology of following who is the Occupying Power, occupied territory, etc.
Hopefully someone can chime in with some additional resources or something because I'm getting caught up in loops trying to parce it all out
https://mobile.twitter.com/SecPompeo/status/1350518185120960513 here's Pompeos tweet about the CCP being within the borders