This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
Doubtful, that would break all kinds of legal restrictions on judiciary independence. To be fully legal...especially in the eyes of the public...the plaintiff must prove its case. The judge cannot collaborate with them behind the scenes.
Now, if the military is skipping legal avenues and is doing a full-on coup, then all bets are off and who cares about even running anything by the judiciary?