Oops. Apologies. My first attempt to post.

Since this article asserts that it is only necessary to achieve "deep fraud" in six cities to steal a national (presidential) election, I had a thought - since electoral votes are allocated to a state based on the number of representatives + the number of senators, why should a state not allocate electoral votes the same way? Each congressional district gets one electoral vote. Whichever candidate wins in that district gets that district's electoral vote. Senators are state-wide, so those are allocated based on the state-wide results.

Wouldn't this scheme ensure that a state otherwise inclined to one political viewpoint (e.g. conservative) except for one large city cannot be overridden by the voters in a single district (city) to force the entire state's electoral votes to go to the opposite political viewpoint?