The man had a lengthy record of 24 arrests, but none that indicate pedophilia, the report says. However, only two of the arrests were unsealed, which were two assaults against a girlfriend in 1987, a third assault in 1992 and drug possession rap in 1996.
There's a logic problem there. How do they make the claim that the 24 arrests don't indicate pedophilia if only two of those arrests were unsealed?
There's a logic problem there. How do they make the claim that the 24 arrests don't indicate pedophilia if only two of those arrests were unsealed?