I'm a bit confused by this, I've been hearing a lot over the past 18 months that with 'flu vanishing there is no statistically significant excess mortality in the West. I don't see how that can be possible if we're seeing a +40% increase in working age mortality. Not dooming, just trying to do my critical thinking and square this circle. And if this is true, how long is it going to be before the actuaries start spinning their wheels about uninsuring the vaxxed?