While I'm inclined to think this MIGHT be true, all we have to go on is (1) one person's assertion and (2) a CDC link that does not mention COVID or vaccines at all. Unless I missed something at those links?
Oh I get the implication, but a well-known fact of Logic 101 is that "correlation does not equal causation." An example would be, "Every single person who had a cold in 1820 is now dead; ergo, the cold caused 100% deaths." We know that's not the case though.... the cold didn't kill everyone in 1820, it's because they died of other deaths and no one lives 200 years. Correlation is not causation.
There is a correlation between the sudden rise in VAIDS cases and the recent vaccination of mass populations, but the CDC link provided above does not make that connection. And the statement by the GAB poster is an assertion.
I suspect that there is a causation, but very few of us have the technical expertise to make the firm, provable case that there is a connection between the two.
In Logic, it's the responsibility of the person making an assertion to prove their case.
I am not the one stating unprovable facts, for example, you are pretty much stating that the CDC has no reason to lie. My response to this is just simple logic, they could all hang for this, thus they are not going to just come out and confess.
What other factors, besides an MRNA vaccine, would give rise to VAIDS?
I never said that the CDC is a trustworthy source, I'm merely stating the elements of logic. Yes there is a strong correlation between vaxxes and all kinds of adverse reactions. I'm not denying that the correlation exists. I just want to see scientists with impeccable credentials to prove it. We're not that different and your argument is not with me, but with pseudoscience.
While I'm inclined to think this MIGHT be true, all we have to go on is (1) one person's assertion and (2) a CDC link that does not mention COVID or vaccines at all. Unless I missed something at those links?
Have we had a societal rise of unprotected homosexual sex or a rise of vaccinations? 2 + 2
Oh I get the implication, but a well-known fact of Logic 101 is that "correlation does not equal causation." An example would be, "Every single person who had a cold in 1820 is now dead; ergo, the cold caused 100% deaths." We know that's not the case though.... the cold didn't kill everyone in 1820, it's because they died of other deaths and no one lives 200 years. Correlation is not causation.
There is a correlation between the sudden rise in VAIDS cases and the recent vaccination of mass populations, but the CDC link provided above does not make that connection. And the statement by the GAB poster is an assertion.
I suspect that there is a causation, but very few of us have the technical expertise to make the firm, provable case that there is a connection between the two.
In Logic, it's the responsibility of the person making an assertion to prove their case.
I am not the one stating unprovable facts, for example, you are pretty much stating that the CDC has no reason to lie. My response to this is just simple logic, they could all hang for this, thus they are not going to just come out and confess.
What other factors, besides an MRNA vaccine, would give rise to VAIDS?
I never said that the CDC is a trustworthy source, I'm merely stating the elements of logic. Yes there is a strong correlation between vaxxes and all kinds of adverse reactions. I'm not denying that the correlation exists. I just want to see scientists with impeccable credentials to prove it. We're not that different and your argument is not with me, but with pseudoscience.
I want to see the proof.