In Aramiac there is only one word for rock and that is Kephas. So it would say "your are Kepha and upon said Kepha I will build my Church." Augustine is only 350 years separated from Christ so I trust him over you. And Cyprian was only 200 years separated.
The Lord says to Peter: “I say to you,” he says, “that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell will not overcome it. And to you I will give the keys of the kingdom of heaven . . .” [Mt 16:18–19]. On him he builds the Church, and commands him to feed the sheep [Jn 21:17], and although he assigns a like power to all the apostles, yet he founded a single chair [cathedra], and he established by his own authority a source and an intrinsic reason for that unity. Indeed, the others were also what Peter was [apostles], but a primacy is given to Peter, by which it is made clear that there is one Church and one chair. . . . If someone does not hold fast to this unity of Peter, can he think that he holds the faith? If he deserts the chair of Peter upon whom the Church was built, can he be confident that he is in the Church? - Cyprian of Carthage, 250 AD
The exegesis of the early Church Fathers is far more accurate than anything someone 2000 years removed can say.
The New Testament was written in Greek, and that is why the distinction between pebble or small rock, and the rock or boulder of the statement Peter made, which was as Jesus said, "revealed to you from my Father who is in heaven."
Notice that a few verses later, Jesus calls Peter Satan.
"22 Then Peter took Him aside and began to rebuke Him, saying, “Far be it from You, Lord; this shall not happen to You!”
23 But He turned and said to Peter, “Get behind Me, Satan! You are an offense to Me, for you are not mindful of the things of God, but the things of men.”
And Jesus spoke in Aramaic, and Greek is an inflected language hence the change in gendered words. Don't dodge the early Church Fathers, Ambrose is only 330 years separated from Christ.
[Christ] made answer: “You are Peter, and upon this rock will I build my Church. . . .” Could he not, then, strengthen the faith of the man to whom, acting on his own authority, he gave the kingdom, whom he called the rock, thereby declaring him to be the foundation of the Church. - Ambrose of Milan, 380 AD
Ambrose, Cyprian, Augustine (~200-300 years away) > rickynotricky (2000 years away)
Jesus spoke in Aramaic, Greek, and Hebrew. The New Testament was written in Greek. Men wrote down the Bible as they were led by the Holy Spirit. What we have for the NT is what was delivered in the Greek. Why did God use Greek? Because it is the most specific language available. Martin Luther also went against the church and its traditions in favor or sola scriptura.
by indicating that Tradition derived from the apostles, of the very great, the very ancient, and universally known Church founded and organized at Rome by the two most glorious apostles, Peter and Paul; also [by pointing out] the faith preached to men, which comes down to our time by means of the successions of the bishops. For it is a matter of necessity that every church agree with this church, on account of its preeminent authority, that is, the faithful everywhere, in so far as the apostolic Tradition has been preserved continuously by those [faithful men] who exist everywhere. - Irenaeus of Lyon, 189 AD
Augustine, Cyprian, Ambrose, Irenaeus (~200 years removed) > ricky (2000 years removed)
In Aramiac there is only one word for rock and that is Kephas. So it would say "your are Kepha and upon said Kepha I will build my Church." Augustine is only 350 years separated from Christ so I trust him over you. And Cyprian was only 200 years separated.
The exegesis of the early Church Fathers is far more accurate than anything someone 2000 years removed can say.
The New Testament was written in Greek, and that is why the distinction between pebble or small rock, and the rock or boulder of the statement Peter made, which was as Jesus said, "revealed to you from my Father who is in heaven."
Notice that a few verses later, Jesus calls Peter Satan. "22 Then Peter took Him aside and began to rebuke Him, saying, “Far be it from You, Lord; this shall not happen to You!”
23 But He turned and said to Peter, “Get behind Me, Satan! You are an offense to Me, for you are not mindful of the things of God, but the things of men.”
And Jesus spoke in Aramaic, and Greek is an inflected language hence the change in gendered words. Don't dodge the early Church Fathers, Ambrose is only 330 years separated from Christ.
Ambrose, Cyprian, Augustine (~200-300 years away) > rickynotricky (2000 years away)
Jesus spoke in Aramaic, Greek, and Hebrew. The New Testament was written in Greek. Men wrote down the Bible as they were led by the Holy Spirit. What we have for the NT is what was delivered in the Greek. Why did God use Greek? Because it is the most specific language available. Martin Luther also went against the church and its traditions in favor or sola scriptura.
Augustine, Cyprian, Ambrose, Irenaeus (~200 years removed) > ricky (2000 years removed)