Yep if you go looking for "analysis" that refutes clearly stated words in the Bible to justify the things the world promotes as "good" you will always find it.
What seems plainly worded in an English translation is not always worded in a way that means the same thing in the original Hebrew or Greek. It's always important to study the original meanings of the original words when trying to determine the true meaning of a Bible verse.
Don't worry though every single translation of the Bible is wrong on this point.
Isn’t it convenient that out of all the translations that get it “wrong” you found one that agrees with how you want to behave which also just happens to agree with how the world wants us to behave.
Christianity is easy when you pick and choose what works for you!
It's not about picking and choosing what works for one. There are many things that I've discovered in analyzing the Bible that are not what I would prefer. Some of them make life harder than it is for most people. But it's important to look critically for the original meaning of the words rather than taking English translations uncritically, whether the results wind up being more lenient or more strict than what most people believe (and there are quite a few of both instances).
So to break this down even further. There are a myriad of differences between the various translations with often significant changes from verse to verse compared to others.
This is one of those times where each translation agrees across the board, but you want to find the interpretation that agrees with how the satanic world wants us to behave.
This is a moment to actually think about how you are being misled.
This is one of those times where each translation agrees across the board
Most, but not all (the Wycliffe translation doesn't for example). The ones that do all agree on "lust" as the translation do so because all Bible translations in use today post-date man-made doctrines that separated the concept of "lust' from the concept of "covetousness" and spun it off into its own separate sin (when in fact every instance of "lust" used to refer to sin in the Bible is referring to coveting something that either belongs to someone else or is otherwise expressly forbidden for one to have).
Technically, it could be said that "lust" isn't necessarily a mistranslation in and of itself, as long as one understands that it is covetousness and not a separate category of sin in its own right.
but you want to find the interpretation that agrees with how the satanic world wants us to behave
Not at all. The "Satanic World" wants no restrictions at all. Translating Matthew 5:28 correctly (with "covet" instead of "lust") and with the understand that it's referring specifically to married women), doesn't retract any of the many commandments restricting sexual behavior.
Also keep in mind that less restrictive doesn't always equal more Satanic; Satan wants man-made commandments to exist in Christianity in order to drive away potential believers and create stumbling blocks for believers.
What seems plainly worded in an English translation is not always worded in a way that means the same thing in the original Hebrew or Greek. It's always important to study the original meanings of the original words when trying to determine the true meaning of a Bible verse.
The Wycliffe translation gets it correct.
Isn’t it convenient that out of all the translations that get it “wrong” you found one that agrees with how you want to behave which also just happens to agree with how the world wants us to behave.
Christianity is easy when you pick and choose what works for you!
It's not about picking and choosing what works for one. There are many things that I've discovered in analyzing the Bible that are not what I would prefer. Some of them make life harder than it is for most people. But it's important to look critically for the original meaning of the words rather than taking English translations uncritically, whether the results wind up being more lenient or more strict than what most people believe (and there are quite a few of both instances).
So to break this down even further. There are a myriad of differences between the various translations with often significant changes from verse to verse compared to others.
This is one of those times where each translation agrees across the board, but you want to find the interpretation that agrees with how the satanic world wants us to behave.
This is a moment to actually think about how you are being misled.
Most, but not all (the Wycliffe translation doesn't for example). The ones that do all agree on "lust" as the translation do so because all Bible translations in use today post-date man-made doctrines that separated the concept of "lust' from the concept of "covetousness" and spun it off into its own separate sin (when in fact every instance of "lust" used to refer to sin in the Bible is referring to coveting something that either belongs to someone else or is otherwise expressly forbidden for one to have).
Technically, it could be said that "lust" isn't necessarily a mistranslation in and of itself, as long as one understands that it is covetousness and not a separate category of sin in its own right.
Not at all. The "Satanic World" wants no restrictions at all. Translating Matthew 5:28 correctly (with "covet" instead of "lust") and with the understand that it's referring specifically to married women), doesn't retract any of the many commandments restricting sexual behavior.
Also keep in mind that less restrictive doesn't always equal more Satanic; Satan wants man-made commandments to exist in Christianity in order to drive away potential believers and create stumbling blocks for believers.