Leave it to the actuaries to get to the bottom of things.

Statistic Nazi here: It's a constant annoyance to me that such data is presented without enough information to be fully meaningful. (Not DemonDMT's fault, of course.)

The mortality rate is ALWAYS 100% -- nobody lives forever. We all die.

So if more of ONE group die than another, it can only be WITHIN A SPECIFIC PERIOD, because in the long run -- meaning just a few decades, really -- mortality is 100% for ANY given group. So instead of:

"7% increase in aggregate mortality . . ."

It would be more accurate (and usefully so) to specify DURING WHAT PERIOD of time the individuals on one group were more likely to die than those of another group.

If that period is one year, it begs the question of whether that RATE of excess mortality in the group will CONTINUE in the coming years, or if the rate will slow or quicken, or whatever.

Having said that, this increased rate of death is another massive red-pill for anyone paying attention, no matter what the time period involved.