Then Judah said to Onan, “Sleep with your brother’s wife and fulfill your duty to her as a brother-in-law to raise up offspring for your brother.” But Onan knew that the child would not be his; so whenever he slept with his brother’s wife, he spilled his semen on the ground to keep from providing offspring for his brother. What he did was wicked in the Lord’s sight; so the Lord put him to death also. - Genesis 38:8-10.
You can see in the context of the verse, he gave her no children ON PURPOSE because under the law at the time, those children would have had his brother's name and continued his brother's family line instead of letting it die out. And Onan did not want to raise that kid, and maybe coveted his brother's property (which would likely be given to his children if his brother never had an heir).
This verse has nothing to do with "sex for pleasure" vs "sex for reproduction".
It is no longer considered a brother's "duty" to sleep with his deceased brother's widow if they had no children. The entire custom the morality of this scenario hinges on is not part of Western culture, at all. So even if this passage had a moral lesson applied to us today, which it doesnt, it would be about family legacy and inheritance, not sex for pleasure vs sex for reproduction.
It is entirely disingenuous to just put in bold the part where he didnt give her children, and act like all ejaculation without children is sinful.
It's like taking the verse where Jesus tells the fig tree "may no one ever eat fruit from you again" and using it to claim Christians are not allowed to sell groceries
It seems like under those definitions sex inside of marriage is also fornication, unless it's for the purpose of generating offspring
birth control and overall sex for pleasure is also effete.
I dont think that is biblical at all
You can see in the context of the verse, he gave her no children ON PURPOSE because under the law at the time, those children would have had his brother's name and continued his brother's family line instead of letting it die out. And Onan did not want to raise that kid, and maybe coveted his brother's property (which would likely be given to his children if his brother never had an heir).
This verse has nothing to do with "sex for pleasure" vs "sex for reproduction".
It is no longer considered a brother's "duty" to sleep with his deceased brother's widow if they had no children. The entire custom the morality of this scenario hinges on is not part of Western culture, at all. So even if this passage had a moral lesson applied to us today, which it doesnt, it would be about family legacy and inheritance, not sex for pleasure vs sex for reproduction.
It is entirely disingenuous to just put in bold the part where he didnt give her children, and act like all ejaculation without children is sinful.
It's like taking the verse where Jesus tells the fig tree "may no one ever eat fruit from you again" and using it to claim Christians are not allowed to sell groceries