Just my shower thoughts. Why is the war on language only the English language?
Also, if the meaning of a word is changed and that word appears in a written law the law is changed without rewriting it.
Just my shower thoughts. Why is the war on language only the English language?
Also, if the meaning of a word is changed and that word appears in a written law the law is changed without rewriting it.
Regrettably, I am literate in only one language and am therefore unqualified to conduct a comparative study of the war on language in other languages. Having said that, I'd lay a wager down that the same phenomena exists in all the major European languages, especially German and Russian. Did the Bolsheviks control Russia for 70 odd years and not pervert their language?
This is all straight out of the Protocols and other subversive literature. Whether genuine or "forgeries" is almost beside the point. They accurately predict the present moment. When someone datefags a hundred and fifty odd years ago and their datefagging turns out to be correct, we better pay attention.