I'm not bullshitting.
I've heard the whole "delayed results" theory. Once it was 2 weeks, then 2 months, then 2 years. I'm not sure why a bioweapon wouldn't have this delayed result after everyone got the first/second jab.
At this point, I fully expect to see people die 50 years down the line and people to try and say it was because of the delayed reaction of the bioweapon from the shot 50 years ago. It just seems silly to hold that expectation that it was a bioweapon.
I would argue that a bioweapon that kills everyone, the HUGE number of people that got the first two shots, within a couple months to be incredibly effective. Why would they need plausible deniability if they're trying to take out that much of the population? Who would they need to deny it to?
Moreover, why would they kill off all the good little obedient citizens, leaving only the staunch and combative to survive?
If the vaccine were a bioweapon designed to kill me, it's done a pretty shit job of it.
Most everyone in my social/family circle, as well as their respective social/family circles, all have at least two shots, some as many as 5. Would it be reasonable for me to believe that it was a bioweapon if they're all still alive today?
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People can agree just fine. It's to minimize having 100 threads all saying the same thing. There are threads dedicated to the discussion and in many place stickied so it's the top discussion on the subreddit.