Just trying to understand if there is nuance I’m not getting or if it really is just partisan corruption
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I thought Executive Orders had to have official numbers and be in the Federal Register.
But maybe I'm wrong.
https://www.federalregister.gov/presidential-documents/executive-orders
I think you are right, but this sounds like a perfectly reasonable explanation for why they are not there: https://greatawakening.win/p/11SJtD3YKy/x/c/4DvmPwXWK7Z
Noted, with thanks.
Curious. If Biden is illegitimate, an his EO is illegitimate, would the act by the official to publish the illegitimate EO also be subject to aiding the illegitimate act?
I am far from a lawyer, but I would think that this is where mens rea comes in. If that person to publish the EOs did it knowing Biden criminally stole the election, then they should be held liable for aiding an illegitimate/illegal act, otherwise they are just doing their job.
they are on there now :sadface: