This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
The problem with your theory is that in most of the cases, the argument is: in some State, the executive ignored the State législatures (and so the constitution), by implementing either unconstitutional election rules OR legit rules without the acknowledgement of the legislature. In all those cases, the SCOTUS is the one having final juridiction. But in some of the cases related to the Dominion voting machines fraud, then the foreign interference is blatant. The army could then do something.
Good thing about that is both happened, so both have jurisdiction. Bigger problem, was the right argument made to the right court.
Correct. Scotus just received amicus brief explaining why they should take the case and make their own independent appraisal without deference to State Court rulings.