This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
I feel ya. Isn't there a Q post that said "POTUS must be insulated" or something? I think at the time I read that I thought it mean physically distanced, aboard AF1 or something, to avoid being assassinated, but maybe it was making reference to him needing to be insulated optically so the public would be more accepting of the military involvement that eventually takes place.