This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
I don't know how to explain it. If we only count working days, 10 days from the inauguration is Feb. 3rd. The day President Trump's 2nd impeachment hearing starts. The news is going to be covering it because Trump is their money maker. The election fraud evidence has yet to be produced, and there is mounds of it. That is the perfect opportunity to show it was Antifa who instigated the violence at the capitol, with lefties telling the police to stand down and especially the election fraud, since his 'rhetoric' about it is what they claim caused the fake 'insurrection' -- who is really doing the insurrection? I'm on the same Trump Train you are and it's about to get bumpy.
Edit: Listen to Dave's latest X22 report, he keeps me supplied with ample amounts of hopium. https://x22report.com/aiovg_videos/ep-2387b-we-wont-know-the-date-we-will-attack-our-enemies-attack-we-will/