This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
I think they likely thought the constitutional arguments (states violating their own constitutions by unilaterally changing election law without state legislatures) were more of a slam-dunk as they were very black and white (law says this, state did this).
True, honestly that’s all they should have ever needed. Anything else was just icing on the cake. But alas, fucked up system with no hope in sight.
It was a guten morgen indeed!