This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
IMO... Some think that it's our civilian court system is the ones to uphold our Constitution... I beg to differ. I believe that it's always been our Military to protect from "Foreign and Domestic invasion". That's their Oath. The Military has been held to a higher standard and their own court system.