This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
They're corrupt individuals with no morales and rule based on politics. That or they're just corrupt people that allowed themselves to be blackmailed. You can pick. No way every judge in the country that heard a case ruled that way because the military told them to do so. Something would have leaked.