1.) First of all, the part of the argument you chose to is not the significant portion. I will address it, but first let's make the primary point clear: This passage only condemns those that profess to be Jews but do lie. This means that utilizing this passage as the basis for claiming all citizens of Israel (or by implication, all Jews) are evil is flat out false. Not all citizens of Israel even claim to be or are Jews to begin with, and not all lie.

Now to the point you tried to argue. This also applies to the "proto-christian Judas" point.

Jesus was a Jew. He was a "Jew" ethnically and spiritually; He was the fulfillment and embodiment of the law; the God of Christianity is the same God of proper Judaism. "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil." (Matthew 5:17, KJV). In that sense, all true Christians can also be considered Jews; Judaism is the original faith in God.

So in that sense, "which say they are Jews, and are not, but do lie" does refer to all of the faithful. Jesus did not destroy the Jewish faith; He came to fulfill it's teachings, clarify it's law on earth (for it was being manipulated by those in power who were corrupt), establish a new Covenant, and ultimately, offer salvation for all of humanity. This is why our Bible contains the Old Testament as well as the New; it does not negate the old, it clarifies it.

Regardless, not all professed Jews followed this; many followed the corrupt religious hierarchy instead. They are not Christians, but if they follow God's law in alignment with the clarifications Jesus made, they are still "Jews". They may be incorrect, and improper, and in some degree of wrongness, but nonetheless, if they earnestly believe in their faith, they are not lying in their claims, meaning they are not considered the "synagogue of Satan" by that verse. Lying must be deliberate; if it is not deliberate, it is merely being incorrect.

Given this, Judas was a "proto-christian" in the sense that Christianity wasn't exactly established at the time of his faith; yet, he was, until his betrayal, a follower of Christ. He was also a Jew. Regardless, he and he alone bear the fault and responsibility for the betrayal of Jesus. Your quote in any sort of application towards the people of Israel or "the Jews" at large is improper and a non-sequitur.

2.) I will admit I jumbled up a few words in my response. Allow me to clarify and restate my argument: The crowd who echoed "his blood be on us, and on our children" was but a crowd. Not all of Jerusalem, probably a tiny fraction, really, were involved in Jesus's crucifixion. This verse can be applied as symbolic against all of humanity, for we are all born with original sin; in a literal sense, it only applies to those there. What's more, neither the power nor the authority to assign judgement or guilt lies with humanity; it lies squarely with God. Jesus said "Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do." (Luke 23:34, KJV). In this, their "slate" so to speak is just as cleared as ours, and all of humanity's.

You and I do not have the authority to deny others of salvation; nor do we have the authority to judge souls. The implication that you can judge an entire group of people, either on some notion of ethnicity or on some notion of them not having "true" faith that they profess in the same God is wholly flawed.

Nonetheless, that is not my point in all of this; my primary point is that your apparent "evidence" or reasoning does not sufficiently match your claim. Those verses you quoted do nothing to prove that all Israelis are evil (or that all Jews are evil).

Again, I remind you, "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her." (John 8:7, KJV). Be wary, for just as "all they that take the sword shall parish with the sword" (Matthew 26:52), those with sin that condemn others with sin may face their own condemnation.