The 4.2% ratio sounds suspicious to me. I hope the data that Pillow Guy possesses are real packet captures, not fake data. It is possible that the black hats interloped with Mike Lindell's 'Red Team' and injected fake packets that resulted in the uniform 4.2% loss in order to make the Pillow Conference look bad.
I think that reality is more likely than the cheaters deciding to steal 4.2% from every single state.
So if the publicly available registration data showed anomalies in which the same percentage of age groups voted in each county, why is it so unlikely that each state was stolen by 4.2%? it just looks like they didn't think they'd get caught?
Appreciate the responses as I'm trying to understand things.
I thought Dr. Frank showed that for every county in a given state, the age distribution matched? That doesn't mean that age distributions between states matched. He did say a few months ago that the "keys" were slightly different depending on the state.
I don't know why the cheaters would steal the same ratio of votes in each state. I would expect them to steal MO by 2%, but PA by 10%, for example.
Or maybe the cheaters had to make the results look similar to past elections in order to not get caught? Maybe they needed the red states to be as red as usual and the blue states to still be blue?
The 4.2% ratio sounds suspicious to me. I hope the data that Pillow Guy possesses are real packet captures, not fake data. It is possible that the black hats interloped with Mike Lindell's 'Red Team' and injected fake packets that resulted in the uniform 4.2% loss in order to make the Pillow Conference look bad.
I think that reality is more likely than the cheaters deciding to steal 4.2% from every single state.
Question, was it Lindel's data or public election data that had the same percentage of each age group voting? I'm not sure..
That was the data Dr. Frank collected from publicly available voter registration databases from each state. It's unrelated to packet captures.
So if the publicly available registration data showed anomalies in which the same percentage of age groups voted in each county, why is it so unlikely that each state was stolen by 4.2%? it just looks like they didn't think they'd get caught?
Appreciate the responses as I'm trying to understand things.
I thought Dr. Frank showed that for every county in a given state, the age distribution matched? That doesn't mean that age distributions between states matched. He did say a few months ago that the "keys" were slightly different depending on the state.
I don't know why the cheaters would steal the same ratio of votes in each state. I would expect them to steal MO by 2%, but PA by 10%, for example.
Or maybe the cheaters had to make the results look similar to past elections in order to not get caught? Maybe they needed the red states to be as red as usual and the blue states to still be blue?