So if the publicly available registration data showed anomalies in which the same percentage of age groups voted in each county, why is it so unlikely that each state was stolen by 4.2%? it just looks like they didn't think they'd get caught?
Appreciate the responses as I'm trying to understand things.
I thought Dr. Frank showed that for every county in a given state, the age distribution matched? That doesn't mean that age distributions between states matched. He did say a few months ago that the "keys" were slightly different depending on the state.
I don't know why the cheaters would steal the same ratio of votes in each state. I would expect them to steal MO by 2%, but PA by 10%, for example.
Or maybe the cheaters had to make the results look similar to past elections in order to not get caught? Maybe they needed the red states to be as red as usual and the blue states to still be blue?
So if the publicly available registration data showed anomalies in which the same percentage of age groups voted in each county, why is it so unlikely that each state was stolen by 4.2%? it just looks like they didn't think they'd get caught?
Appreciate the responses as I'm trying to understand things.
I thought Dr. Frank showed that for every county in a given state, the age distribution matched? That doesn't mean that age distributions between states matched. He did say a few months ago that the "keys" were slightly different depending on the state.
I don't know why the cheaters would steal the same ratio of votes in each state. I would expect them to steal MO by 2%, but PA by 10%, for example.
Or maybe the cheaters had to make the results look similar to past elections in order to not get caught? Maybe they needed the red states to be as red as usual and the blue states to still be blue?