AIDS found to originate from heavy "poppers" (highly toxic nitrite inhalant drug) usage among male homosexual community and the disease is NOT contagious. This has been known since 1981 - but was totally suppressed by the powers-that-be.
SOURCE: America's Frontline Doctors
Your comment but further down:
I think poppers may have lowered the immune system, but it does not cause aids/hiv on its own. You know why I believe this? Because I tried poppers before when I was a teenager which was in the 80s.
Looking forward to you explaining why I didnt get aids/hiv.
AZT was the catalyst to giving someone aids/hiv, and loved ones of the deceased protested Doc Fraudci..
https://principia-scientific.com/dr-fauci-40-years-of-lies-from-azt-to-remdesivir/
For starters, occasional poppers use is different than constant/frequent use. And HIV is not the same thing as AIDS.
I don't have all the answers - I merely shared an article posted by America's Frontline Doctors, which I deem a highly credible source. Go argue with them - I didn't write the article, I merely shared it because I found it interesting and thought-provoking.
Who's to say that the cabal didn't totally engineer that whole plan-demic and rig the diagnostic tests, just like they've done with COVID? That could have been their trial run to perfect their techniques and tactics used for future plan-demics.
You asked me for my opinion and merely expressed my experience with you..
Did you take poppers on a daily basis and have anal sex with thousands of partners a year as part of your experimentation?
It wasn't people who occasionally took poppers that were becoming immunosuppressive. It was the people who took poppers, amphetamines, ethyl chloride, cocaine, speed, and/or heroin on a nearly daily basis.
We called them junkies prior to the 1980s and nobody blinked an eye when a junkie died from the common cold before HIV/AIDS was a supposed thing.
The truth offends a lot of people.
And HIV+ does not equal full blown AIDS.
HIV infection is simply a marker for risky behavior.
Magic Johnson has been HIV+ since the 1990s, and he quit taking AZT and is doing quite well, isn't he?
Maybe it's because he's not abusing recreational drugs and is continuing to eat healthy and work out?
How is it nonsense to declare abusing recreational drugs can lead to immunosuppression? It's common knowledge and I've even posted government studies elsewhere in this thread that admit that very thing...