I'm not sure enough on the details of that one, but in Canada and the US, Nuremberg code isn't applicable, laws were built to capture the essence of Nuremberg in law.

So, it could be a semantic difference where the lawsuit references the particular laws in effect, but people recognize Nuremberg.

If it's in Germany, that might be a different story, and I don't know enough to answer.

Also if there was the opportunity for clarification from Reiner would be ideal.