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That's an improper exegesis of the text. Peter or in the Greek Petros = stone, pebble or small rock. Rock in Greek is Petra = Rock, cliff, or ledge.
Christ was referring to the statement Peter had made about Christ when he said "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.”
17 Jesus answered and said to him, “Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jonah, for flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but My Father who is in heaven. 18 And I also say to you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build My church, and the gates of Hades shall not prevail against it.
It is also evident that Peter was not the first Pope or even the head of the Church in Rome because in Acts 15 Paul goes to meet with the Apostles and Elders of the church to discuss whether gentiles need to be circumcised, and it is James, the brother of Jesus, who makes the ruling for the church, and not Peter.
Catholic teaching is that Peter is the first Pope and that there is a direct line of succession from the Pope of today all the way to Peter, except history tells us otherwise. I was once a practicing Catholic and was taught doctrines of Catholicism. I left in 1982 and became born again in 1989, and joined a Bible preaching church, that teaches sola scriptura, sola gratia and sola fide, that is, scripture alone, by grace alone, through faith alone. That is to say salvation is not by works, but by the Grace of God, through faith which is a gift of God, based on the Gospel which is the Word of God.
In Aramiac there is only one word for rock and that is Kephas. So it would say "your are Kepha and upon said Kepha I will build my Church." Augustine is only 350 years separated from Christ so I trust him over you. And Cyprian was only 200 years separated.
The exegesis of the early Church Fathers is far more accurate than anything someone 2000 years removed can say.
The New Testament was written in Greek, and that is why the distinction between pebble or small rock, and the rock or boulder of the statement Peter made, which was as Jesus said, "revealed to you from my Father who is in heaven."
Notice that a few verses later, Jesus calls Peter Satan. "22 Then Peter took Him aside and began to rebuke Him, saying, “Far be it from You, Lord; this shall not happen to You!”
23 But He turned and said to Peter, “Get behind Me, Satan! You are an offense to Me, for you are not mindful of the things of God, but the things of men.”
And Jesus spoke in Aramaic, and Greek is an inflected language hence the change in gendered words. Don't dodge the early Church Fathers, Ambrose is only 330 years separated from Christ.
Ambrose, Cyprian, Augustine (~200-300 years away) > rickynotricky (2000 years away)
Jesus spoke in Aramaic, Greek, and Hebrew. The New Testament was written in Greek. Men wrote down the Bible as they were led by the Holy Spirit. What we have for the NT is what was delivered in the Greek. Why did God use Greek? Because it is the most specific language available. Martin Luther also went against the church and its traditions in favor or sola scriptura.