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18
Jesus is a JEW. He said He came to FULFILL the LAW Not to Abolish It.
posted 3 years ago by 7ate9 3 years ago by 7ate9 +18 / -0
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▲ 14 ▼
– SovereignSon 14 points 3 years ago +14 / -0

Galatians 3:26 For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.

27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.

28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

29 And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

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▲ 2 ▼
– uk9994 2 points 3 years ago +2 / -0

Abraham....now there is a story...did you know he had his own army? His wife and he never had any children...his wife wanted a child but she was old and barren..part of the deal yahweh..governor of Israel made with Abraham to get him to leave his home and relatives and help yahweh gain more territory and kill more people was to fix his wife and get her pregnant and have a percentage of the spoils of war.

Abraham agreed.

That was the promise to Abraham ..that his seed....descendants would populate Israel....

So here you have a man turn against his own species and help the aliens take over the world....

PoS

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▲ 6 ▼
– SovereignSon 6 points 3 years ago +6 / -0

That's a pretty far fetch :)

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– uk9994 2 points 3 years ago +2 / -0

Not what you thought you knew huh? It isn't though

It's what the Bible really says along with a proper translation of old hebrew bibles ..you know the Torah is in the Bible? Christianity is basically Jewish law etc

Mauro biglino official channel youtube English subtitles was interlinear translator for the Vatican publishers until he uncovered too much evidence of the elohim annanuki called annuk in the Bible

Keep an open mind...do some research..or learn to do it yourself...find out the truth ..not the agenda

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– SovereignSon 2 points 3 years ago +2 / -0

Good point, there's a lot I don't know about the Old Testament. I know the new testament pretty good, but mostly go with what the Holy Spirit teaches, scripture affirmed.

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... continue reading thread?
▲ 1 ▼
– Tewdryg 1 point 3 years ago +1 / -0

The oldest Hebrew bibles is Masoretic in origin. Here's why. Hebrew today is not in anyway the written Hebrew of the ancient Israelites. Written Hebrew today is referred to as 'Neo-Hebrew' and is a made-up concocted language based on Arabic and other existing Canaanitish languages. The ancient Israelites spoke the language of Eber (paleo-Hebrew) and would not understand a word of neo-Hebrew spoken today. Look up "Hebrew" and even Wikipedia tells us that the written Hebrew of modern times (neo-Hebrew) is not paleo-Hebrew. Paleo-Hebrew is the original writings of the books of the Old Testament (OT). Unfortunately, paleo-Hebrew was lost to antiquity.

Modern written Hebrew is based on the work by the Masoretes in 900 AD. Who are the Masoretes? They are Pharisaic Jews (Pharisees), who recreated a new written 'Hebrew' from Arabic and other existing Canaanitish languages because the original Hebrew was lost in antiquity. The Masoretes used the Greek Septuagint Old Testament to create a new written 'Hebrew' that had vowel points.

The oldest Bible OT there is the Septuagint, which was transliterated from the original paleo-Hebrew in circa 285 BC. The original Hebrew written language was by that time becoming extinct.

According to tradition, it was Ptolemy Philadelphus, who purchased the freedom of Israelites in his territories, arranged for 6 scholars from each of the 12 tribes to translate the first 5 books of the Old Testament from paleo-Hebrew into Greek around 285 BC. By this time a practical knowledge of the Hebrew written language was all but lost.

The original written Hebrew consisted only of consonants and relied on an oral knowledge to decipher the consonant only words. Think of the 'cat' and remove the vowel. It becomes 'ct'. Without the vowel, the word 'ct' could be cat, cot, cut, cute, acute, coat, etc. An individual of knowledge would be required to orally teach others what the word 'ct' was. This is how the priestly class taught and passed on the writings of the bible. The paleo-Hebrew writings were designed for the bible deciphering. This is how the Hebrew written language was passed down generation after generation. It was central to understanding the bible.

With the written Hebrew language being greatly eclipsed and dominated by the very popular Greek language, which was the international language of the day, Hebrew was in danger of being lost. Ptolemy gathered together 72 scholars and in a short period of time they completed the Pentateuch. The Pentateuch is from Greek pentáteuchos and is the first five books of the Old Testament. The Latin name 'Septuagint' means 70, and was later applied to the translation in circa 1555 AD, for there was approximately 70 translators. This is also the reason why the abbreviation 'LXX' is used. After the first 5 books were finished, the translators set out to work on the rest of the OT. The exact date this was accomplished is not known, but it is certain the complete OT was finished within 100 years and it is likely it was completed within a few years by the same translators.

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– uk9994 1 point 3 years ago +1 / -0

https://clifhighvideos.com/20130215a/

Enjoy

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▲ 3 ▼
– SovereignSon 3 points 3 years ago +3 / -0

I don't watch videos, do you have a text version?

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... continue reading thread?
▲ 3 ▼
– deleted 3 points 3 years ago +3 / -0
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– uk9994 2 points 3 years ago +2 / -0

Don't watch ancient aliens....seen a few by chance.

So would you trash it if you knew the pyschopath you are calling god

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– 11PlayingTheGame 1 point 3 years ago +1 / -0

Moses sold out the people just like Abraham did. Forced monotheism and turned them into slaves. Fled with a portion of the people that would listen and twisted Hebrew into Jew, claiming to be the chosen of "god" (his overlords). They were a horrible group of people that were duplicitous with everyone they encountered, causing them to be chased out of pretty much every place thet went.

(But not all Anunnaki are the enemy of humans.)

Can you please share your knowledge on Moses? I would like to know more on the subject.

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▲ 3 ▼
– Tewdryg 3 points 3 years ago +3 / -0

The word 'Jew' didn't exist in any biblical texts prior to the 1600s. This word has been intermingled with the words 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite' for over 400 years. It's use in the Bible is ambiguous and unfortunately needs to be deciphered for every verse that it is used. Some times it refers to the Roman province of Judea, other times it refers more accurately to Edomites. Other times it references 'Israelites".

The word Jew never really derived from Judah and certainly did not exist during the Roman times as I will explain in the following paragraph..

Rome referred to the region as 'Judea' from the Latin 'Iudaea', which is derived from the Greek 'Idumea'; "land of Edomites" and those people of the region as 'Judeans'. From the time of conquest by Alexander the Great, the region was called 'Idumea'. The influence of the Greeks in the entire Levant was so culturally dominating that the written paleo-Hebrew was becoming lost. As a result, the Greek Septuagint was written in 256 BC. The international language throughout the eastern Mediterranean was koine Greek. Without records, it is plausible that Jesus may have read from the Greek Septuagint. We don't know for sure. Nevertheless, the Romans readily accepted the Greek influence existing there and added their own Latin version. The Romans simply used the Latinized version ('Iudaea') of the Greek 'Idumea'.

Much later the word Jew comes into existence in England in circa 1600s, which coincides with a wave of Yiddish immigrants coming from France and Deutschland. Originally the English term 'Jewry' referred to those immigrants coming from Eastern European people who spoke Yiddish (Ashkenazi). A French derogatory term for 'ghetto' and the Yiddish district of town was called -- 'Jeuerie'; "ghetto", from Anglo-French 'Juerie', Old French 'Juierie' or the later English version 'Jewry'. The word 'Jew' did not exist during the Roman times. Even Pontius Pilate inscribed a title in Latin on the torture stake that properly translated reads - "Jesus the Nazerene King of the Judeans". From the above entymology of the word Judean, we find the plaque was far more derogatory to the death of our Savior than people realize. The real translation is -- "Jesus the Nazerene King of the Idumeans (Edomites)."

The Moses part of your post eerily sounds like it originates from the Talmud. Here's why. Concerning Moses, the claim that Judaism commemorates the Passover of the Old Testament is as nonsensical as the one that asserts that Judaism's "Noahide Laws" are based on Noah, the Biblical patriarch who is mocked and degraded in Orthodox Judaism. Like the ersatz Talmudic Noah, the bogus rite in Judaism misnamed "Passover" is derived from the Talmud - using the Bible as a prop. Here below is information on Judaism's foundational Passover text. Surprise, surprise, it's not the Old Testament but rather the Haggadah, a thoroughly Talmudic work.

The Haggadah doesn't tell the story of Exodus so much as it depicts five rabbinical sages exegetically parsing it via Deuteronomy. Rabbis Eliezer, Yehoshua, Elazar ben Azariah, Akiva, and Tarphon spice up the biblical tale of the flight from Egypt by arguing over the minutiae of the Passover rites, which were originally compiled in the Talmud, the Jewish book of religious laws. We'll avoid the scholarly bickering about when this occurred (very roughly, 200 CE), but one thing remains certain: the Talmud, and the Haggadah along with it, was a response to a catastrophe so great it threatened to destroy a people.

In 66 CE, when the Roman general Vespasian swept into Jerusalem, Judaism was a cultic, oral religion, with Herod's massive temple as its lodestar. Everything happened in the temple complex. Four years later, Vespasian's son Titus razed it to the ground. "Where was God under the rubble?" wondered the Rabbis. "How to praise him now that the temple was gone?" The sages agreed: Jews would have to become a people of the book, or they would disappear.

In other words before that, these people were not the people of the book.

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– uk9994 2 points 3 years ago +2 / -0

Mauro biglino official channel youtube English subtitles was interlinear translator for the Vatican publishers until he uncovered too much evidence of the elohim/annanuki

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▲ 1 ▼
– 11PlayingTheGame 1 point 3 years ago +1 / -0

Thanks. He does sound familiar. I'll check him out.

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– uk9994 2 points 3 years ago +2 / -0

Wasn't Moses really akenaten? Another alien who wanted to be god over the whole world? See Billy Carson 4bidden knowledge tv

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– 11PlayingTheGame 2 points 3 years ago +2 / -0

Yes, Akhenaten. One and the same.

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