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posted ago by tobeselfevident ago by tobeselfevident +32 / -1

Yes, we all know that it was, but look at what happened in Arizona. They proved that the printer settings were changed the night before the election to make sure votes in heavily Republican areas couldn't be counted, but by calling it FRAUD we have to prove it was intentional. Is that part of the reason we're having such a hard time making our case to these judges? Should the argument be shifted from "they did it on purpose" to "it doesn't matter whether it does done intentionally or not, it was done, and voters were disenfranchised. We need to do it over again." Or something to that extent?