Government without Consent Lacks Legitimacy
(www.americanthinker.com)
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I read about three paragraphs of the link provided. It was "legaleese" wording to the hilt. I'm an avid reader of authors like Clancy and Dale Brown, yet reading the link I feel I need to go back to school. Could you give a cliff's notes breakdown of what is being litigated? I'm thinking that until 1968 an individual tax payer could not bring suit against the Federal Government to force the government to spend the tax dollars on its original intentions. Is that correct?