The text of the law makes it very clear it only applies to "foreign persons" not "United States persons."
This is because it's designed to sanction people who are outside US law. If they were in the US, they could be arrested and prosecuted for their crimes. But since they are beyond US law, it's designed to freeze any of their money in the US.
Are you saying that applying the law in a more broad form to include citizens of the United States would not give authorities the ability and power to hold actors in the United States responsible therefore seizing the assets and or forfeiting said assets? And as a result choking off the method of funding said subversion operations?
This doesn't apply to Americans. It only applies to foreign persons.
Section 1
(a) All property and interests in property that are in the United States, that hereafter come within the United States, or that are or hereafter come within the possession or control of any United States person of the following persons are blocked and may not be transferred, paid, exported, withdrawn, or otherwise dealt in:
(c) the term “United States person” means any United States citizen, permanent resident alien, entity organized under the laws of the United States or any jurisdiction within the United States (including foreign branches), or any person in the United States.
This is based on Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Act which was signed in 2016.
(In part)
Yes. As stated at the top of the e.o. captain obvious.
I will say however your copy/paste skills are impeccable. But they serve no purpose in your ability to understand. You're a read/write just like a hard drive. You consume and regurgitate information. That's it. It doesn't help your argument.
Don't waste my time. Read the damn e.o. or step aside.
This doesn't have anything to do with Devolution.
This doesn't apply to Americans. It only applies to foreign persons.
This is based on Global Magnitsky Human Rights Accountability Act which was signed in 2016. https://www.federalregister.gov/d/2017-27925/p-1
The text of the law makes it very clear it only applies to "foreign persons" not "United States persons."
This is because it's designed to sanction people who are outside US law. If they were in the US, they could be arrested and prosecuted for their crimes. But since they are beyond US law, it's designed to freeze any of their money in the US.
Are you saying that applying the law in a more broad form to include citizens of the United States would not give authorities the ability and power to hold actors in the United States responsible therefore seizing the assets and or forfeiting said assets? And as a result choking off the method of funding said subversion operations?
Section 1
(a) All property and interests in property that are in the United States, that hereafter come within the United States, or that are or hereafter come within the possession or control of any United States person of the following persons are blocked and may not be transferred, paid, exported, withdrawn, or otherwise dealt in:
(c) the term “United States person” means any United States citizen, permanent resident alien, entity organized under the laws of the United States or any jurisdiction within the United States (including foreign branches), or any person in the United States.
(In part)
Yes. As stated at the top of the e.o. captain obvious.
I will say however your copy/paste skills are impeccable. But they serve no purpose in your ability to understand. You're a read/write just like a hard drive. You consume and regurgitate information. That's it. It doesn't help your argument.
Don't waste my time. Read the damn e.o. or step aside.
Literally' doesn't mean what you think it means.
We're done.
This is what happens when the copy/paste function is called out.
Back to Reddit ya' go.
WHOskidmark has been trying to catch this falling knife for a while, not incapable of thought , just unwilling to admit failure.