On the references to father, the same section in John 8 speaks to it.

John 8:39–42 (ESV): They answered him, “Abraham is our father.” Jesus said to them, “If you were Abraham’s children, you would be doing the works Abraham did, but now you seek to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God. This is not what Abraham did. You are doing the works your father did.” They said to him, “We were not born of sexual immorality. We have one Father—even God.” Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love me, for I came from God and I am here. I came not of my own accord, but he sent me.

There’s a lot going on here so here’s how I parse the speaking and the claims.

• The Jews claimed Abraham was their father in the sense of being their ancestor.
• Jesus claimed to have heard the truth “from God” (theos)
• Jesus said to the Jews, “You are doing the works your father did.” The language here isn’t specific as to who this “father” refers to, but the prior statement in context has Jesus telling them that they were not doing the works of Abraham, though they claimed him as their father.
• The Jews said, “We have one Father— even God.” (theos)
• Jesus said to them, “If God [theos] were your father, you would love me, for I came from God [theos] and I am here.”

The last two points there have the overlap in language. The Jews claim that they have one Father God [theos] following from their believes rooted in the shema (Deut 6:4; c.f. Isaiah 63:16; 64:8). Jesus then turns that around saying that if they were true to their claim of loving their father God, then they would love him because he came from God, the same God the Jews claimed was their father.

So the prior claim in this comment thread was that Jesus’ statement in (John 8:44) equates Yahweh with the devil (Satan). I don’t see how that is coherent with the passage because of John 8:41-42. That reading requires that both the Jews and Jesus are using the Greek word theos but are referring to two different entities. I don’t see anything in the passage making that distinction.

Do you dispute he came to " tear down the temple and rebuild it anew " And that his body was the temple ? What's that mean too you ?

The original statement from Jesus is in John 2:19

John 2:19-22 (ESV): Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” The Jews then said, “It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and will you raise it up in three days?” But he was speaking about the temple of his body. When therefore he was raised from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this, and they believed the Scripture and the word that Jesus had spoken.

The other forms like, “I will destroy this temple…” come from the false witnesses at the trial before the crucifixion in Matthew 26:61; 27:20; Mark 14:58; 15:29. It’s worth noting here in John 2 that, in addition to the Jews not understanding what Jesus meant, the disciples also did not immediately understand what Jesus meant.

What does that mean to me? I take the view of John 2:21-22 that the temple Jesus was referring was his body and that, though destroyed, it would be raised up. He was speaking of the coming crucifixion and resurrection as he did other times in the gospels.