Reminder from 1803 Marbury v. Madison case.
(media.greatawakening.win)
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Congress can pass
municipal laws for the territories where they have exclusive jurisdiction
laws for the States of the Union in conformity with 1:8:17 of the Constitution,
but Congress has no obligation to tell you which hat they are wearing. One clue is that there are laws that define United States/State with a reference to the States of the Union, but most laws do not. Try searching 8 USC (immigration and nationality) or 26 USC (Internal Revenue) for the name of your state, "states of the union", and so on.
That is lawyer babble and falling for it or giving into it is how we got here.
Then you are stating that Congress can write general law for the States of the Union just the same as they do for their wards, the US territories under exclusive federal jurisdiction, that cannot stand on their own, and that Congress has has full authority to ignore the limitations in 1:8:17 of the Constitution.