4 short video clips that explain everything that needs to be understood --
Ken O'Keefe on the lies of history:
https://media.gab.com/system/media_attachments/files/168/480/465/playable/db99e37cb200c0f8.mp4
David Irving on the fact that the "Holocaust" and "gas chambers" story was invented by British intelligence as a psyop cover story to deflect from Soviet war crimes:
https://media.gab.com/system/media_attachments/files/166/584/357/playable/98d3aa66fc7e279a.mp4
Irving again on the fact that there are NO documents in the archives to support the "official" fake narrative of the Holocaust (such documents do not exist because it did not happen -- it always was, and still is, a psyop):
https://gab.com/system/media_attachments/files/143/048/370/original/502dbb6bcf156916.mp4
Ryan Messano about what (and why) things are happening today:
Just announced on CNBC.
Over the past few years, a lot of red voters moved to Florida and other red locations.
I was a little concerned that some of the swing states might have weakened due to the Red Exodus.
When Florida came in early with massive pro-Red numbers, I thought my concern might come true.
But no.
Swing states held.
With so many people piling into Florida, and yet Trump still gets a huge win, this means ...
THE RED WAVE IS BIGGER THAN IT APPEARS.
Things in your mirror might be larger than they appear.
- White House
- Senate
- House of Reps
- Supreme Court
- Red Voices unleashed and proud
- New Red Voices beginning to sing
This is the start of something YUUGE.
First off, the Roman Salute is a White European greeting that White Europeans gave each other for centuries -- likely starting during the Roman Empire, 2,000 years ago.
If anyone thinks it is "Nazi" or "bad," it is only due to propaganda, not reality.
The Germans adopted the salute as a tribute to their White European heritage.
Here are American students with a Roman Salute to the US flag.
Second, here is a video clip from the 1939 rally in New York City, at Madison Square Garden -- complete with audio and subtitles for the first few minutes.
Note the reciting of the Pledge of Allegiance in its ORIGINAL form (it has since been changed):
"I pledge UNDIVIDED allegiance to the flag of the United States of America, and the republic for which it stands, ONE NATION INDIVISIBLE, with liberty and justice for all.
Anchor babies and dual citizens will NEVER have undivided allegiance -- and we see the results of that play out today. We have invaders and infiltrators trying to destroy from within, which is WHY there must be UNDIVIDED loyalty. But they took that out of the Pledge for some odd reason ... hmm ...
The speaker begins by stating WHY they were having the rally.
This is something the fake news media will NEVER reveal to the People -- for obvious reasons.
Sure, they will show you imagery, but they will spin the story to suit their false narrative. They will not let you hear the words that were actually spoken.
Hear and see for yourself:
https://www.bitchute.com/video/TL8X51siDNne
Third, this rally was held February 20, 1939.
At this time, the jews in Poland were committing atrocities against the ethnic German people who were living there -- the borders were changed from Germany to Poland as a result of Germany's loss in WW1.
The jewish Bolsheviks in Russia were moving westward into Poland (with plans to take over Europe). They were raping, torturing, and murdering German civilians living there.
Hitler was asking world leaders for help in stopping these attrocities. All world leaders ignored him because they wanted a pretext for war.
On September 1, 1939 (just over 6 months after this rally), Germany finally went into Poland to put an end to the attrocities. They did end it, but England and France used the "invasion" as a pretext to declare war on Germany. They knew the real reason Hitler went in, but of course they lied about it.
Fourth, The beginning of the speech references the infiltration within the USA, as well, and one of the infiltrators storms the stage.
The fake news media will not show you any of that.
Even the producer of this video clip will not tell you WHY the things that happened during that time happened. He -- like the fake news media -- wants everyone to believe Hitler was crazy and evil.
In realty, Hitler was responding to evil.
Finally, if you want to understand the evil that Hitler and the German people were defending against, watch this -- a documentary told in Hitler's own words:
I came across some interesting court cases recently.
1787 -- The Constitution for the United States of America is written.
1819 -- Just 32 years later, while James Madision, John Adams, and Thomas Jefferson were all still alive, the Massachusetts Supreme Court said there were only citizens of the states:
The term, “citizens of the United States,” must be understood to intend those who were citizens of a state, as such, after the Union had commenced, and the several states had assumed their sovereignties. Before this period there were no citizens of the United States. Manchester v. Boston, Massachusetts Reports, Vol. 16, Page 235 (1819)
1821 -- Two years later, a federal court said a citizen of one state is a citizen of the other states, as well:
“A citizen of one state is to be considered as a citizen of every other state in the union.” Butler v. Farnsworth, Federal Cases, Vol. 4, Page 902 (1821)
1855 -- No such thing as “citizen of the United States”
“A citizen of any one of the States of the Union, is held to be, and called a citizen of the United States, although technically and abstractly there is no such thing. To conceive a citizen of the United States who is not a citizen of some one of the States, is totally foreign to the idea, and inconsistent with the proper construction and common understanding of the expression as used in the Constitution, which must be deduced from its various other provisions.” Ex parte Frank Knowles, California Reports, Vol. 5, Page 302 (1855)
1868 -- 14th Amendment adopted. In the main body of the US Constitution, anyplace where “Citizen” was written, the word was capitalized. Starting with the 14th Amendment, and all amendments thereafter, the word “citizen” was lower-case. Interesting.
1873 -- Just 5 years after the adoption of the 14th Amendment, federal courts said this:
The term resident and citizen of the United States is distinguished from a Citizen of one of the several states, in that the former is a special class of citizen created by Congress. U.S. v. Anthony 24 Fed. 829 (1873)
1875 -- 2 years after that, we have the US Supreme Court stating:
We have in our political system a government of the United States and a government of each of the several States. Each one of these governments is distinct from the others, and each has citizens of its own. United States v. Cruikshank, 92 U.S. 542 (1875)
1883 -- 8 years later, the Indiana Supreme Court said:
One may be a citizen of a State and yet not a citizen of the United States. McDonel v. The State, 90 Ind. 320 (1883)
1906 -- US Supreme Court (this case has never been overturned, and has been cited by other courts over 1,600 times, making it one of the most authoritative court cases in American law):
The individual may stand upon his Constitutional Rights as a Citizen. He is entitled to carry on his private business in his own way. His power to contract is unlimited. He owes no duty to the State or to his neighbors to divulge his business, or to open his doors to an investigation, so far as it may tend to incriminate him. He owes no duty to the State, since he receives nothing there from, beyond the protection of his life and property. His rights are such as existed by the Law of the Land (Common Law) long antecedent to the organization of the State, and can only be taken from him by due process of law, and in accordance with the Constitution. He owes nothing to the public so long as he does not trespass upon their rights. Hale v. Henkel 201 U.S. 43 at 89 (1906)
1908 -- Florida Supreme Court, citing previous US Supreme Court rulings:
It is the duty of all officials whether legislative, judicial, executive, administrative, or ministerial to so perform every official act so as not to violate constitutional provisions. a. Inasmuch as every government is an artificial person, an abstraction, and a creature of the mind only, a government can interface only with other artificial persons. The imaginary, having neither actuality nor substance, is foreclosed from creating and attaining parity with the tangible. The legal manifestation of this is that no government, as well as any law, agency, aspect, court, etc. can concern itself with anything other than corporate, artificial persons and the contracts between them. S.C.R. 1795, Penhallow v. Doane’s Administrators 3 U.S. 54; 1 L.Ed. 57; 3 Dall. 54; and, b. the contracts between them involve U.S. citizens, which are deemed as Corporate Entities: c. Therefore, the U.S. citizens residing in one of the states of the union, are classified as property and franchises of the federal government as an individual entity, Wheeling Steel Corp. v. Fox, 298 U.S. 193, 80 L.Ed. 1143, 56 S.Ct. 773 Montgomery v State 55 Fla. 97
1927 -- California Supreme Court:
there is a citizenship of the United States and citizenship of a state,” Tashiro v. Jordan, 201 Cal. 236 (1927)
1953 -- Federal Court:
A citizen of the United States is a citizen of the federal government Kitchens v. Steele, 112 F.Supp 383 (1953)
1958 -- US Supreme Court:
The constitutional theory is that we the people are the sovereigns, the state and federal officials only our agents. Cooper v. Aaron, 358 U.S. 1 (1958)
1968 -- District Court in Puerto Rico, citing US Supreme Court (natural, fundamental rights do not belong to US citizens):
Defendants’ error lies in assuming that the right to vote is an essential right of citizenship. The only absolute and unqualified right of citizenship is to residence within the territorial boundaries of the United States. US vs. Valentine 288 F. Supp. 957 [see: Balzac v. People of Puerto Rico, 258 US 298]
1993 - District Court case:
The privileges and immunities clause of the 14th Amendment protects very few rights because it neither incorporates the Bill of Rights, nor protects all rights of individual citizens. Instead this provision protects only those rights peculiar to being a citizen of the federal government; it does not protect those rights which relate to state citizenship. Jones v. Temmer, 89 F. Supp 1226
How to make sense of it all?
1776:
When the Declaration of Independence was signed, the 13 British colonies in America became free and independent States, on equal footing with all other countries of the world.
The People in each of these 13 States/countries wrote their own State constitution, identifying the powers of their State government, and limiting the authority of their government, while also prohibiting their government from violating the fundamental rights of the People in the State.
1787:
The People, via their representatives in Congress, assembled, wrote a new constitution to create a 14th government (“federal government”) to grant certain powers to it for a more efficient overall government experience. This federal government was granted certain powers that would apply within the States, such as regulating foreign commerce, but only such powers as enumerated.
In addition -- AND THIS IS KEY -- this document had a clause giving the federal government exclusive jurisdiction over the federal territories (powers beyond what was enumerated). So, the enumerated powers apply to the States, but all other powers ONLY apply to the federal territories and enclaves (military bases).
Article 1, Section 8, Clauses 1-16 are the enumerated powers that the States granted to the federal government, for which the federal government has authority within the States (bankrupcy laws, postal services, foreign commerce, money and credit, military and war, etc.).
Article 1, Section 8, Clause 17 is a special power, where the States gave the federal government EXCLUSIVE jurisdiction (authority to make law) for ANY law, but ONLY applies to the people living within the District of Columbia (Washington, DC). This authority also applies to "federal enclaves," which are military forts, dockyards, and "needful buildings." But these enclaves are ONLY those geographic territories within States whereby the State's legislature granted full jurisdiction to the federal government by way of a legislative act. This is necessary for an army base, for example. Other than that, these laws DO NOT APPLY within the 50 States.
Article 4, Clause 3, Section 2 is also a special power, where the States gave the federal government EXCLUSIVE jurisdiction (authority to make law) for ANY law, but ONLY applying to the federal territories, which today are Puerto Rico, US Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands. There are also some special districts created by international law in the international waters, and the federal government has authority there. Again, these laws DO NOT APPLY within the 50 States.
HOWEVER, these two clauses (Constitution 1:8:16 and 4:3:2) are what has been used to steal your rights. Congress passes a law that DOES NOT APPLY within the 50 States, because they do not have ANY jurisdiction to apply such a law within the States, and then they PRETEND it does apply. And since everyone, including the State bureaucrats have no idea what the Constitution and court cases have said, they "go along to get along."
The result is theft of YOUR rights.
1819:
The courts were already recognizing that there could be a confusion with the term “citizen of the United States.” They were clarifying that this term meant a “citizen of a particular State, and by means of that, also a citizen of THESE States, united.” But, there was NO SUCH THING as a “citizen of the United States, as in a citizen of the federal government.”
1868:
The 14th Amendment had a tricky clause, which created (or became construed as creating) a new class of citizenship, which was federal and NOT state.
Early 20th Century:
The courts were still recognizing that We the People, as individuals, have natural rights that the government (state or federal) cannot violate. But there was also a movement hidden in the shadows trying to pervert this idea. This was the time of the income tax and Federal Reserve creation (unconstitutional, btw).
Mid-20th Century:
The courts were recognizing these two competing ideas. There were those who were trying to trick everyone into thinking they were “US citizens” and at the same time not revealing that to be one of these, one would give up their natural rights. At the same time, some courts were reasserting the original concept, so as to remind Americans who they are (members of the sovereign class, and not subjects of the government, ruled over by a higher class -- which does not exist, in reality).
Current times:
Only people who have familiarized themselves with the REAL LAW of the United States of America (meaning, all the case law about this subject) understand that they are not citizens of an inferior class. However, the propaganda has been so strong, that these people are looked at by everyone else (myself included, until recently) … as crazy.
But really, who is crazy? Those who understand they are of the class of people who created the government, or those who believe they are inferior subjects who must do anything a government employee demands of them?
Are YOU a "citizen of the United States?"
Depends on who you are, and what question is being asked by what government agency.
For income tax purposes, the income tax applies to "United States citizens and residents."
And for that purpose, the definition of "United States" is the District of Columbia.
See definitions: 26 USC 7701(a)(9) and 26 USC 7701(a)(10).
Congress passed the Income Tax Act in 1913, where it said that a tax was imposed on "United States" citizens and residents.
It defined "United States" as: Alaska, District of Columbia, Porto Rico, and Philippines Islands.
Alaska became a federal territory in 1912. Porto Rico was misspelled by Congress when it became a federal territory, and the name was later changed to Puerto Rico. Both Puerto Rico and the Philippines became federal territories as a result of the Spanish-American War in 1898.
When the Philippines was granted independence, it was no longer a federal territory.
When Hawaii became a territory, both Alaska and Hawaii were included in the income tax definition of "United States." When each became a State, they were removed from the definition.
Puerto Rico and the other territories were given their own income tax laws.
So today, only the District of Columbia is listed as the "United States" for income tax purposes.
At no time has any of the States been listed. This is not a mistake. This is by design due to the limitations of the Constitution.
Prior to 1939, the regulations for the income tax said that "gross income" did not include "any item that is excluded by the Constitution or otherwise not taxable by the federal government."
Then, they changed it to "... unless excluded by fundamental law." (Fundamental law = Constitution)
Today, it says, "Gross income means all income from whatever source derived, unless excluded by law."
Yes, excluded because the Constitution prohibits the federal government from enforcing a direct tax within the 50 States -- but DOES NOT exclude the same for the District of Columbia or the other federal territories.
But that is the federal income tax law. Other federal laws may be different.
Citizenship can be either state or federal. To be a federal "US citizen," one just be (a) born or naturalized in the United States, AND (b) subject to the jurisdiction thereof.
That means subject to the EXCLUSIVE jurisdiction of the FEDERAL government.
Most Americans are born within one of the 50 States to parents who are also State citizens (but don't know it, due to the propaganda).
This makes most people members of the class of "We the People" at birth. But once you claim to be a "US citizen," you VOLUNTARILY allow the deception, and the government -- including the COURTS -- will assume you are what YOU SAY you are.
I suspect this is why all those court cases about the 2020 election were thrown out for ... LACK OF STANDING.
Nobody stood up and said, "I am a citizen of the State of Georgia, and my vote for presidential elector was not counted due to fraud by State election officials."
Instead, they hired an "attorney-at-law" to "represent" them. These attorneys are ALSO clueless about this aspect of law, because it was never taught to them in law school. This part of law was removed from the law school curriculum about 50-100 years ago.
So, the attorney, speaking FOR the person filing the lawsuit, claimed that the person was a "US citizen" and his "rights were violated via election fraud."
The courts, without saying it out loud, recognized that FEDERAL GOVERNMENT CITIZENS HAVE NO FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS. Therefore, they HAVE NO STANDING in such a court case.
Food for thought.
I wrote this as a reply to the RFK, Jr. clip about the Federal Reserve, but thought I would make this a new post, since a lot of people probably don't know a lot of this.
Today, LLC's are the most popular business structure. But they were not even invented until 1977. Prior to LLC's, it was the corporation that was the most popular. But those are relatively new, as well.
Corporations were not widely availabe to the masses back in 1913, when the Federal Reserve was created Through most of history, corporations could only be formed by kings. So, most people used either sole proprietorships, partnerships, or business trusts.
The Federal Reserve was originally created in 1913 as a business, which was owned by a business trust.
The owners/beneficiaries were Rothschild, Rockfeller, etc. -- the ususal suspects.
If you have heard of "anti-trust" laws or "trust busting," those are misnomers. They were laws to break up monopolies, aimed mostly at Rockfeller, who owned the Standard Oil Company as a business trust. That's where those terms come from.
The problem the criminal conspirators had with their previous central banks (1791 and 1816) was that, under the common law, trusts (including business trusts) could not last forever. This is why they had 20-year charters. This meant that they would have to ask Congress to renew the charter every 20 years, which was a problem for them.
So, they started pushing for laws to make corporations popular. Throughout history, only the king could create a corporation. But they started passing laws in the States to make corporations available to everyone, and make them more popular than business trusts. This started in the 1890's, but was established by the 1920's.
By the 1920's they had the laws passed and court decisions necessary, to switch. The Federal Reserve charter from 1913 would expire in 1933. So, in 1926 (or 1927, I forget), they converted the Federal Reserve System from a business trust to a corporation. Why? Because corporations have perpetual existence. There was no more need to ask Congress for re-authorization every 20 years.
The original owners/beneficiaries of the business trust that owned the Federal Reserve System were Rothschild, Rockefeller, etc. This ownership information could be hidden from the public, because the trust document itself was never made public.
But when they converted to a corporation, they reorganized the setup. They would have the member banks OWN the shares of the Federal Reserve System, Inc. to make it look legit. BUT those same criminal conspirators would CONTROL the system from behind the scenes.
They do this through the New York Federal Reserve Bank, which is one of the branches. This is why the president of the NY Fed has a permanent seat on the FOMC. Through the NY Fed, the criminal conspirators control the entire system.
They print money and control the flow of funds through the "open market operations," which ONLY the NY Fed is allowed to do. All the "pomp and ceremony" you see from the Fed Chair (currently, Jerome Powell) is just for show. He actually has no power at all, and just does what he is told to do, off camera. But he has to be someone who can engage in word salad to confuse the public. He probably doesn't even really know WTF he is talking about or why, other than he was told to do this or that and justify it some way to the media.
In 1931, the Federal Reserve System, Inc. created a subsidiary corporation, incorporated in Maryland, called Department of Treasury, Inc. This would become known as the Department of Treasury, which is NOT the United States Treasury Department.
If you pay close attention, you will notice the use of very confusing interchangable terms that sound like they are the same thing, but they are not: United States Treasury, Treasury Department, Department of the Treasury, Department of Treasury, Treasury Secretary, Secretary of the Treasury, etc.
In 1933, the Department of Treasury, Inc. created its own subsidiary corporation called the Internal Revenue Audit and Tax Service, Inc. This company would become known as the Internal Revenue Service. It would move its HQ to Puerto Rico, but have a public address in Washington, DC.
So, the Federal Reserve, Inc. owns the Department of Treasury, Inc., which owns the Internal Revenue Service, Inc. They just don't use those exact names or make it that obvious.
If you look at any IRS tax form, you will ALWAYS see "Department of Treasury, Internal Revenue Service," linking the two together and giving the IMPRESSION that they are both departments within the federal government. But are they? Which "Department of Treasury" is meant on those forms? Why doesn't it say Department of THE Treasury, or US Treasury or US Treasury Department, or United States Treasury Department? You don't know, and they won't tell.
If you just look at it at face value, without assuming any government involvement, you can see what it is actually saying.
General Motors, Chevrolet Division.
Department of Treasury, Internal Revenue Service Division.
If you want to pay a tax and send a check to the IRS, they tell you to write a check to "IRS" or "Internal Revenue Service." If you instead write the check to "US Treasury Department," they will send it back and tell you to write a check to IRS or "Department of Treasury." Isn't that the same thing? They used to tell you to write a check to IRS or FRB (Federal Reserve Bank), but they changed it -- maybe people were catching on and asking questions.
If you look at a dollar bill ($1, $5, $20, makes no difference which denomination), you will notice that it says, "Federal Reserve Note." What is a "note?" It is a promise to pay (aka: "promissary note"). Promise to pay what? It USED TO BE a promise to pay YOU, the holder of the note, either gold or silver coin. Today, it is nothing but a promise to pay more Federal Reserve Notes (FRN's).
You will also notice there are TWO signatures on that note. This means that TWO PARTIES created that promissory note, which is required for any note (one party cannot create a note for itself). Who are these parties?
The two parties are the US Treasurer and the Secretary of the Treasury.
The Secretary of the Treasury is a cabinet position within the Executive Branch of the federal government. The US Treasurer works within that department, as the head of the US Mint and the Bureau of Engraving -- the functions to create coins and currency.
That is a problem, because it is a FEDERAL RESERVE note, and not a UNITED STATES note, which was the case before 1913.
The problem is that ONE OF THESE TWO PARTIES MUST NECESSARILY BE WORKING FOR THE FEDERAL RESERVE.
A promissory note is between two parties -- one borrows and the other lends. Who is the borrower and who is the lender of a Federal Reserve Note?
The US government is the borrower and the Federal Reserve is the lender, since it is THEIR NOTE. This means the US Treasurer must ALSO be working for the Department of Treasury, Inc., which is owned by Federal Reserve, Inc.
There is no other way for this note to be LEGAL TENDER. The i's must be dotted and the t's must be crossed to make it all LEGAL. And this is the only way these two signatures could create a PROMISSORY NOTE.
Although one department of the US government could (theoretically) borrow from another department (i.e. the federal government borrowing from itself), this could NOT be the case for Federal Reserve Notes, because the Federal Reserve is a PRIVATE COMPANY, and NOT a government agency.
Back in the days of the phone book, the front section had phone numbers for goverment agencies and departments -- local, State, and federal -- which were the "Blue Pages," and they did NOT show the local Federal Reserve branch phone number in that section. It was in the normal White Pages, where the PRIVATE personal and business phone numbers were listed -- because it was and still is a PRIVATELY OWNED BUSINESS. It's just that the people who control it have disguised the structure to fool the public.
Today, it LOOKS like a government entity. But it is CONTROLLED by private parties. Of course, the member banks "own" it, but they have NO CONTROL. They receive a 6% dividend on their investment, and all net profits go to the United States Treasury.
BUT ... those are NET profits -- AFTER ALL EXPENSES.
What exactly are the expenses? How much is paid out -- and to whom -- BEFORE the dividends are paid and net profits flow to the US Treasury?
NOBODY KNOWS ... because the Federal Reserve, Inc. ... has NEVER BEEN AUDITED.
Why not?
You should be able to figure that out on your own.
This is how the system REALLY works. People like Epstein and Diddy have their place, but the real power is in the ability to create money from nothing, siphon some of it off (as G. Edward Griffin says), and funnel that money not only to buy houses and yachts and private jets, but to also buy PEOPLE ... people in Congress, people who become district attorneys, people who become judges, people who control Wall Street, people who control media, people who control universities, people who control advertisers, people who control narratives, people who control drugs, people who control food, people who murder, people who blackmail, people who start wars, people who do the dirty work of the criminal conspirators who operate in the shadows, and have gained illegitimate power due to all the money they created from nothing. Well, nothing but the ink on a piece of paper, that is deemed to be a "law" that says they can.
Average Joe has no clue about any of this, because the system is DESIGNED for him to be clueless.
Average Joe's only job is to expend his labor, in exchange for fake money, which he can exchange for bread and circuses -- but only AFTER he has paid his toll to the criminal conspirators who use the fruits of his labor to design a system to enslave him.
As posted in another thread:
Criminal charges were filed on Tuesday against Republican presidential nominee Donald Trump and his running mate Sen. JD Vance in relation to rumors of Haitian immigrants eating pets in Springfield, Ohio.
The charges were filed byGuerline Jozef, leader of nonprofit Haitian Bridge Alliance
On "The Board" (of Directors) of the Haitian Bridge Alliance is Wade McMullen.
Wade McMullen is an experienced human rights lawyer whose legal and advocacy work in service of grassroots activists and social justice movements has spanned the globe.
Wade currently serves as SVP of Programs & Legal Strategy at Robert F. Kennedy Human Rights, where he leads the organization’s strategy ...
https://haitianbridgealliance.org/board/
This same guy is on the Leadership Team of BOTH the Haitian Bridge Alliance AND the Robert F. Kennedy Human Rights Foundation:
At Robert F. Kennedy Human Rights, Wade leads the organization’s strategy and its legal and educational programs that work with frontline advocates to topple systemic injustice and foster a new generation of human rights defenders.
https://rfkhumanrights.org/person/wade-mcmullen/
https://rfkhumanrights.org/about-us/our-people/our-team/
Several Kennedys are on the Board of Directors (41 directors), along with Martin Sheen and a large number of other jews.
https://rfkhumanrights.org/about-us/our-people/board-of-directors/
Check out the list of names on this page (scroll all the way through):
https://rfkhumanrights.org/about-us/our-people/leadership-council/
I don't see Robert F. Kennedy, Jr. anywhere on there, though.
Looks like RFK, Sr.'s wife (Ethel) is still alive and the founder of this foundation.
This would explain why many of the Kennedys hate RFK, Jr. He won't tow the line of the Kennedys who want to destroy America.
Back to the Haitian Bridge Alliance, with an attorney who is also on the RFK foundation.
They received IRS approval to be a 501(c)(3) organization in 2016. But that was as a private foundation (section 509 of IRC).
This means they have to file form 990 every year.
But they don't.
Last filing was 2018.
Are they getting money from RFK Foundation or similar co-conspirator organization?
Robert F Kennedy Center for Justice and Human Rights changed its name to Robert F Kennedy Human Rights (per Wiki). The old organization last filed an IRS tax return in 2021, showing $57 million in assets.
https://apps.irs.gov/app/eos/details/
https://apps.irs.gov/pub/epostcard/cor/132522784_202112_990_2023051221217402.pdf
Under the new name, I don't see any IRS filings at all. Maybe the IRS is behind. I dunno.
Like so many of these big "charities," they give away only a very tiny percentage of their assets and donations received, but a lot of money in salaries and expenses.
From the 2021 tax return:
2020 -- Total Revenue: $16.8 million. Total assets: $61.3 million.
Total chartiable donations given: $1 million.
Total salaries and other expenses: $9.8 million.
2021 -- Total Revenue: $7.5 million. Total assets: $57.5 million.
Total chartiable donations given: $800,000.
Total salaries and other expenses: $10.5 million.
If you go to page 10 of the tax return, we see that only $500,000 went to "domestic" organizations and individuals, and $374,000 went to "foreign" organizations, governments, and individuals.
Meanwhile, $6 million went to salaries and associated expenses of directors and employees.
Almost $2 million went to "other" expenses.
THEORETICALLY ...
It would be easy for a large public charity like this one to funnel money to a tiny charity like the one suing Trump, and have its funds (which are supposed to be for charity) go to lawfare against political opponents.
Then, if the small charity later dissolves and reforms under a new name, they might not have to file IRS forms, which would have shown where they got their money from, because that organization no longer exists.
Whatever is going on, this pro-black/anti-White Haitian organization MUST be getting money from SOMEWHERE in order to file charges and/or lawsuits, and they just happen to have an attorney on staff that is ALSO on staff of the RFK foundation.
Weird, huh?
EDIT: Technically, I guess, it's not a lawsuit (yet). It's a charge for the police to follow up on. But I am assuming it will turn into a lawsuit for defamation.
I came across this paper, which is the best single source I have ever seen that clearly explains how the USA government was set up, and how it is SUPPOSED TO function.
Most people today seem to think that the federal government is at the top, the States are below, and the People are at the bottom.
The truth is the opposite: The People are at the top, the States are below, and the federal government is at the bottom -- and it has only specific, LIMITED powers.
BUT ...
They have been trying to turn it all upside down via propaganda and deception.
They have done this by utilizing two specific clauses in the Constitution, which grants to the federal government EXCLUSIVE AUTHORITY to pass ANY law they want -- but this power ONLY applies within the District of Columbia and the federal territories (Puerto Rico, US Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and Northern Mariana Islands).
Regarding the 50 States of the Union, the federal government only has ENUMERATED POWERS ... written in the Constitution ... and NOTHING MORE.
But the 14th Amendment did, in fact, create a "new" class of citizenship, and everyone has been TRICKED into claiming they are that type of citizen.
That type of citizen (United States citizen) ... HAS NO RIGHTS.
That type of citizen has ONLY "privileges and immunities," but NO FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS FROM GOD.
If YOU claim to BE that type of citizen, then the government PRESUMES you are, and you have no fundamental rights. Thus, they treat you that way.
If you have ever heard or read about "State citizens," or "14th Amendment citizens" or similar, you have heard correctly, but I have never seen anyone put it all together in a clear, logical format, complete with US Supreme Court case law and other legal authorities to back it up -- until now.
This paper does it.
An important quote from the paper in the conclusion:
In any given Act of Congress, it is important to determine whether the Act is founded on some part of the U.S. Constitution whereby the States of the Union have delegated authority to the United States government and thereby bound themselves and the people who live therein to the Acts of Congress on that issue. Without the proper delegation of authority, the Acts of Congress apply only to the territory belonging to the United States and such Acts have no legal operational effect within the States of the Union. Moreover, without this delegation of authority, the agents of the United States government are without authority to enforce the Acts of Congress, Presidential Executive Orders, or regulations created by any secretary of the president’s cabinet.
It is 40 pages. If you can't take the time, over the next couple of days, to read through 40 pages, then guess what? YOU do not DESERVE to live in a free society.
So ... READ IT.
EVERYONE needs to read it. THIS is how we take back America.
We simply unravel the lies and deceipt, and assert our rightful ownership that has been taken by fraud.
"Fraud vitiates every thing." -- US v. Throckmorton
https://www.youhavetheright.com/tour1/Cooperative_Federalism.pdf
Someone came up with an interesting connection.
(1) Dems launched fraudulent lawsuits against Trump. Why?
(2) Maralago docs case claimed national security interests. Why?
(3) National security interests means there would be a FISA warrant to spy on Trump (again).
(4) Said warrant would allow collection of info via spying, including campaign.
(5) Leaked info to Iran?
(6) Iran to Biden ... err ... Kamala? Why?
(7) $$$$$. Favors? Election interference?
237 years ago today, the Constitution for the United States of America was signed.
Did everyone forget?
Citizen: What have you given us, Mr. Franklin?
Benjamin Franklin: A republic, if you can keep it.
"IF"
We the People have not done our jobs.
It is time to resolve to change that behavior.
I saw the thread "100 Years of the Income Tax" and started to respond.
But I realized this response needs its own post.
So, here goes ...
Several SCOTUS decisions have defined what the word "income" means, as it relates to the income tax, per the Constitution.
Congress has NO LAWFUL AUTHORITY to define the word "income," which is why there is no definition of "income" anywhere in the tax code.
This is because Congress has no authority to define what the Constitution means. They can only follow it, not define it.
Title 26 of the United States Code (26 USC) is where we find the "internal revenue laws," which includes the income tax ... AND OTHER TAXES, as well.
The Constitution gives Congress the authority to tax "income." But that is NOT what Congress taxes. Read 26 USC 1 (the very first section of the tax code). It says:
There is hereby imposed on the TAXABLE INCOME of ...
You see the subtle deception? The tax is NOT imposed on "income," which is what they have autority to tax, per the Constitution. Instead, the tax is imposed on "taxable income."
https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/26/1
This is a DIFFERENT thing. It has its own definition (which Congress can define, because they are NOT taxing "income" -- they are taxing a DIFFERENT thing which they call "taxable income").
One more time, to drive home the point:
(1) The Constitution grants Congress the power to tax income.
(2) Congress has chosen instead to impose a tax on something they call "taxable income," not "income," and they define what that means.
(3) These are TWO DIFFERENT THINGS -- because they MUST be.
Congress HAS NO AUTHORITY to define any of the terms in the Constitution (as that would mean they have sole authority to determine their own authority). So, they do not define "income" in the tax code (because they can't). And they do NOT actually tax "income." Instead, they tax something else entirely.
This is the deception of the income tax.
It IS a constitutional law. it is NOT unconstitutional. It's just that deception is used to trick people into believing they have a tax obligation, which they may or may not have (some people DO have to pay an income tax; others do not).
Congress has ONLY imposed a tax on "taxable income."
They define "taxable income" as "gross income, minus deductions."
OK, so what is "gross income?"
"Gross income" is defined at 26 USC 61 as "All income, from whatever source derived ..." [giving examples, such as salaries, etc.].
This is language taken direction from the 16th Amendment ... BUT TO DEFINE "gross income" and NOT to define "income," which is what the 16th Amendment actually authorizes.
Notice, the word "income" is used in the definition of "gross income," BUT they do not define what "income" is -- anywhere in the tax code. This is because they cannot determine what the Constitution means. Only SCOTUS can.
So, they do not tax income. Instead, they tax "taxable income," and define it as "All income minus deductions," but without defining "income."
https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/26/subtitle-A/chapter-1/subchapter-B/part-I
Now, what is REALLY interesting is taking a look at what the regulations say about "gross income." No government agency or department (or even private organization acting like a government agency) can enforce ANY law passed by Congress unless it has a regulation spelling out what it can do, and what the statutes MEAN, according to the enforcing agency.
The regulations are found in the Code of Federal Regulations ("CFR").
If you look up the regulation related to the definition of "gross income," you will find it at 26 CFR 1.61-1. It says:
Gross income means all income, from whatever source derived, unless excluded by law.
https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/26/1.61-1
The first part is directly taking from the 16th Amendment, but is used to define "gross income" and NOT "income," which is the ONLY thing Congress has the power to tax.
That's because this regulation is a direct copy of the statute that the regulation is to enforce (26 USC 61).
BUT ...
What does "unless excluded by law" mean?
Notice: That wording is NOT in the statute. It is ONLY found in the regulation.
Your average accountant, or even most tax attorneys, will NOT look up the regulation, but only the code.
So, MOST OF THE DO NOT EVEN KNOW THIS EXISTS, but it is PART OF THE LAW !!!
In fact, it is REPEATED in the regulations, several times:
26 CFR 1.61-1 Gross Income:
Gross income means all income from whatever source derived, unless excluded by law.
26 CFR 1.61-2 Compensation for services, including fees, commissions, and similar items.
Wages, salaries, commissions paid salesmen, compensation for services on the basis of a percentage of profits, commissions on insurance premiums, tips, bonuses (including Christmas bonuses), termination or severance pay, rewards, jury fees, marriage fees and other contributions received by a clergyman for services, pay of persons in the military or naval forces of the United States, retired pay of employees, pensions, and retirement allowances are income to the recipients unless excluded by law.
26 CFR 1.61-14 Miscellaneous items of gross income.
In addition to the items enumerated in section 61(a), there are many other kinds of gross income. For example ... unless excluded by law.
To understand what it means, it is helpful to go all the way back to the 1939 revised tax code. The 1913 tax code has been revised several times, and also amended. Every so often, they do a major revision, where things are re-organized. They then amend it each year when they tweak it this way or that way (to continually make it more and more difficult for most people to understand, and to use it for political campaign rhetoric).
I suspect that most members of Congress also have no clue what the tax law REALLY says.
Today's section 61, "Gross income defined" was the same thing but in a different location in the 1939 revision. In that revision, it was section 39, "Gross income defined" and gave the same definition.
In 1954, there was a major revision, and section 39 was changed to section 61. There was another major revision in 1986, keeping this section as 61.
Today's tax code is the 1986 revision, as amended each year up until 2024.
But that 1939 revision is still part of the law, except where changes have been made via amending it over the years.
Anyway, the regulation for section 39 back then said:
Gross income means all income, from whatever source derived, unless excluded by fundamental law or otherwise not taxed.
What does "fundamental law" mean? Or "otherwise not taxed?"
It means ... the CONSTITUTION !!!
In the 1954 revision, they removed this word, but it still today in the regulations says, "unless excluded by law." It means the same thing today as it did in 1939. "Excluded by law" means anything that the federal government is powerless to tax due to constitutional restraints.
But the statute does not say it. Only the regulations do.
The 1939 regulations also said, at 26 CFR § 39.22(b)-l (1956):
No other items may be excluded from gross income except (a) those items of income which are, under the Constitution, not taxable by the Federal Government ...
Pretty clear, huh?
But they took that language out when they moved the "Gross income" definition in 1939 from section 39 and moved it to section 61 in the 1954 revision.
They ALWAYS tell the truth somewhere in the code or regulations, but they do not promote it, and IRS will blatantly deny what the clear language says, because they WANT to violate those constitutional restraints.
But they can't. So instead, they use deceptive wording.
So ...
What type of "income" is exluded by law from "gross income" (which is the starting point of arriving at "taxable income," which is the ONLY thing that Congress has passed ANY laws to tax, as it relates to income?
Several SCOTUS cases, combined, tell us. Though reading through them and getting at what they mean is not easy.
The biggest thing to understand is that "income" is NOT the money you receive -- for anything. The money you receive in exchange for services or buying and selling things (i.e. business and investment) is PROPERTY, and not INCOME.
The federal government is PROHIBITED by the Constitution from directly taxing your property. That would be a direct tax, which the Constitution allows, but ONLY by apportionment to the states.
There are only TWO types of taxes that Congress can enforce: Direct and Indirect.
A tax on property is a direct tax, and Congress can only do that by sending a bill to the states for the states to pay -- NOT to the People directly.
BUT ...
An excise tax is an indirect tax that Congress CAN enforce on the People.
An excise is a tax on some ACTIVITY, not on property.
When you buy gas at the gas station, the price includes a "federal gasoline excise tax" on the privilige of the ACTIVITY of buying gas, which is regulated by the federal government, per the interstate commerce clause of the Constitution.
BUT you do not pay the government DIRECTLY. Instead, the government imposes the tax on the gas station (really, the state which imposes it on the gas station). The gas station collects the tax and pays it to the government.
Thus, it is an INDIRECT tax to you, and not a direct tax.
The income tax is an excise tax on the activity of engaging in some federal privilege. THAT is what it is. That is what all the SCOTUS decisions point to, though they never spell it out that clearly in any particular case.
Each case is based on the facts and circumstances of THAT case only. So, they rule on that, and not on what "income tax" means, as a whole. So, you have to piece it all together to understand it.
There are SCOTUS cases that say that if you receive money as compensation for your labor, then that is NOT income, and therefore Congress cannot tax it.
BUT ...
Those cases had to do with private labor. Exchanging your labor for money is a COMMON LAW RIGHT, or a FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT that existed long before the government existed, and you STILL HAVE THAT RIGHT TODAY.
See: 9th Amendment.
UNLESS ...
Your labor is some sort of federal government PRIVILEGE.
In that case, Congress CAN tax it.
Congress would be taxing the ACTIVITY of working and receiving a "gain" by engaging in a government privilege.
Examples:
(1) Husband has a job working for General Electric, and receives money as compensation for his services. His wife is a federal judge, and receives money as compensation for her services. His salary is NOT "income" under the Constitution because he has a common law right to work for a living. But his wife's salary IS "income" under the Constitution, because nobody has a RIGHT to work for the government. That is a privilege.
(2) They own stock in IBM and in Fannie Mae. They receive dividends from both companies. The dividend from IBM is NOT "income," consitutionally, because they have a RIGHT to own property and receive a benefit from owning it. But the dividend from Fannie Mae IS "income," constitutionally, because Fannie Mae is a corporation that was created by Congress and would not exist if the federal government did not exist. So, they can tax it.
(3) Grandpa receives a pension as part of his compensation for working for Boeing for 40 years. He also receives Social Security. His Boeing pension is NOT "income" because he has a common law right to work and receive compensation, as well as retirement benefits, from his work. But he does NOT have a RIGHT to receive ANY money from the federal government in the form of a retirement handout (it is NOT a return on investment, legally, no matter how many politiicans lie about that -- it is legally a welfare benefit). The government CAN tax it, or they can choose not to. But even if they choose not to, they can if they decide to change the law.
THIS is why the Secretary of the Treasury, who is the head of the IRS, ultimately, put into the regulations (many years ago) something that was not and is not in the actual statute. Namely, that "gross income" includes ALL income, but does NOT include ANY income that is EXCLUDED BY LAW (i.e. the Constitution and the Supreme Court decisions that define what the word "income" means).
The famous SCOTUS case that ruled that the 16th Amendment is constitutional was Brushaber v. Union Pacific (1916). SCOTUS ruled that the 16th Amendment "confered no new taxing power" because the NATURE of an income tax WAS ALWAYS an indirect, excise tax (which is a tax on the ACTIVITY of engaging in a government privilege).
The tax is NOT on the income. It is a tax on the ACTIVITY that produces monetary compensation, and that monetary compensation is the MEASURE used to determine the AMOUNT of tax to pay.
However, what most people miss about that case is that "Union Pacific" was the Union Pacific Railroad, which was a special corporation CREATED BY CONGRESS for the purpose of building out the railroads in the 19th century.
Therefore, Congress COULD tax the dividends to Mr. Brushaber, as his ownership in that government corporation was a privilege and not a common law right.
Other SCOTUS cases have always distinguished between right and privilege, which allows them to make constitutional rulings, even though they also engage in deception.
Remember all the 2020 election challenge cases that were not heard by courts?
SCOTUS has the constitutional authority to CHOOSE which cases to hear and which to ignore. So, they WAIT until they get just the right case, with just the right facts and circumstances with the ISSUE they want to rule on ... and ONLY take that one or a few cases that will allow them to rule they way the want to.
That's why they used Brushaber, and not some other case. They could rule the 16th Amendment constitutional, without directly mentioning that ownership of stock in Union Pacific Railroad was a privilege, not a right.
NOW ... HAVING SAID ALL OF THAT ...
Even if you do not engage in any federal government privilege, you CAN VOLUNTEER to do so, if you want (or if you are deceived into believing that you must).
If you volunteer to engage in the privileged activity, then you MUST comply with the laws that govern that activity.
HENCE ...
Voluntary compliance.
Make sense now?
Finally, take a look at another tax that is imposed by Title 26, the Internal Revenue Laws:
26 USC 5001:
There is hereby imposed on all distilled spirits produced in or imported into the United States a tax at the rate of $13.50 on each proof gallon and a proportionate tax at the like rate on all fractional parts of a proof gallon.
https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/26/5001
Do you see that THIS tax is IMPOSED within Title 26, just like the income tax is imposed in Title 26, as well?
Do YOU have to pay this tax?
Do YOU produce or import distilled spirits?
Part 1 of 2
Elon knows math.
In math (algebra), "x" is a variable or place holder.
I would not be surprised if "X" returns to the name "Twitter," and then Trump makes his announcement, as predicted by Q.
The FBI reportedly utilized advanced, unreleased technology from digital intelligence company Cellebrite to access the phone of Thomas Matthew Crooks, the man identified as the shooter in the recent attack on former President Donald Trump.
... the FBI faced a critical challenge in accessing the shooter’s phone. The device, identified as a newer Samsung model running Android’s operating system, proved resistant to the FBI’s initial attempts at data extraction using their existing Cellebrite software license.
... The urgency of the situation reportedly prompted FBI agents to make a direct appeal to Cellebrite, an Israel-founded digital intelligence company that provides technology to various U.S. federal agencies. The FBI’s goal was to extract data from the device to help uncover the motives behind the attack carried out by Crooks, who was killed during the incident.
... In response to the FBI’s request, Cellebrite swiftly provided additional technical support and transferred new, unreleased software that was still in development to the FBI in Quantico, Virginia.
The system works by way of the golden rule:
He, who has the gold, makes the rules.
Nobody has to follow the rules. But those who do not follow the rules, do not get any gold. Those who do follow the rules, can get some of the gold. The more rules they follow, the more gold they have a chance to get.
Stop following the rules, and the gold stops flowing.
Violate the rules openly, and all those dirty secrets that the gold paid for, come out into the open. Bye bye.
I came across some interesting court cases recently.
1787 -- The Constitution for the United States of America is written.
1819 -- Just 32 years later, while James Madision, John Adams, and Thomas Jefferson were all still alive, the Massachusetts Supreme Court said there were only citizens of the states:
The term, “citizens of the United States,” must be understood to intend those who were citizens of a state, as such, after the Union had commenced, and the several states had assumed their sovereignties. Before this period there were no citizens of the United States. Manchester v. Boston, Massachusetts Reports, Vol. 16, Page 235 (1819)
1821 -- Two years later, a federal court said a citizen of one state is a citizen of the other states, as well:
“A citizen of one state is to be considered as a citizen of every other state in the union.” Butler v. Farnsworth, Federal Cases, Vol. 4, Page 902 (1821)
1855 -- No such thing as “citizen of the United States”
“A citizen of any one of the States of the Union, is held to be, and called a citizen of the United States, although technically and abstractly there is no such thing. To conceive a citizen of the United States who is not a citizen of some one of the States, is totally foreign to the idea, and inconsistent with the proper construction and common understanding of the expression as used in the Constitution, which must be deduced from its various other provisions.” Ex parte Frank Knowles, California Reports, Vol. 5, Page 302 (1855)
1868 -- 14th Amendment adopted. In the main body of the US Constitution, anyplace where “Citizen” was written, the word was capitalized. Starting with the 14th Amendment, and all amendments thereafter, the word “citizen” was lower-case. Interesting.
1873 -- Just 5 years after the adoption of the 14th Amendment, federal courts said this:
The term resident and citizen of the United States is distinguished from a Citizen of one of the several states, in that the former is a special class of citizen created by Congress. U.S. v. Anthony 24 Fed. 829 (1873)
1875 -- 2 years after that, we have the US Supreme Court stating:
We have in our political system a government of the United States and a government of each of the several States. Each one of these governments is distinct from the others, and each has citizens of its own. United States v. Cruikshank, 92 U.S. 542 (1875)
1883 -- 8 years later, the Indiana Supreme Court said:
One may be a citizen of a State and yet not a citizen of the United States. McDonel v. The State, 90 Ind. 320 (1883)
1906 -- US Supreme Court (this case has never been overturned, and has been cited by other courts over 1,600 times, making it one of the most authoritative court cases in American law):
The individual may stand upon his Constitutional Rights as a Citizen. He is entitled to carry on his private business in his own way. His power to contract is unlimited. He owes no duty to the State or to his neighbors to divulge his business, or to open his doors to an investigation, so far as it may tend to incriminate him. He owes no duty to the State, since he receives nothing there from, beyond the protection of his life and property. His rights are such as existed by the Law of the Land (Common Law) long antecedent to the organization of the State, and can only be taken from him by due process of law, and in accordance with the Constitution. He owes nothing to the public so long as he does not trespass upon their rights. Hale v. Henkel 201 U.S. 43 at 89 (1906)
1908 -- Florida Supreme Court, citing previous US Supreme Court rulings:
It is the duty of all officials whether legislative, judicial, executive, administrative, or ministerial to so perform every official act so as not to violate constitutional provisions. a. Inasmuch as every government is an artificial person, an abstraction, and a creature of the mind only, a government can interface only with other artificial persons. The imaginary, having neither actuality nor substance, is foreclosed from creating and attaining parity with the tangible. The legal manifestation of this is that no government, as well as any law, agency, aspect, court, etc. can concern itself with anything other than corporate, artificial persons and the contracts between them. S.C.R. 1795, Penhallow v. Doane’s Administrators 3 U.S. 54; 1 L.Ed. 57; 3 Dall. 54; and, b. the contracts between them involve U.S. citizens, which are deemed as Corporate Entities: c. Therefore, the U.S. citizens residing in one of the states of the union, are classified as property and franchises of the federal government as an individual entity, Wheeling Steel Corp. v. Fox, 298 U.S. 193, 80 L.Ed. 1143, 56 S.Ct. 773 Montgomery v State 55 Fla. 97
1927 -- California Supreme Court:
there is a citizenship of the United States and citizenship of a state,” Tashiro v. Jordan, 201 Cal. 236 (1927)
1953 -- Federal Court:
A citizen of the United States is a citizen of the federal government Kitchens v. Steele, 112 F.Supp 383 (1953)
1958 -- US Supreme Court:
The constitutional theory is that we the people are the sovereigns, the state and federal officials only our agents. Cooper v. Aaron, 358 U.S. 1 (1958)
1968 -- District Court in Puerto Rico, citing US Supreme Court (natural, fundamental rights do not belong to US citizens):
Defendants’ error lies in assuming that the right to vote is an essential right of citizenship. The only absolute and unqualified right of citizenship is to residence within the territorial boundaries of the United States. US vs. Valentine 288 F. Supp. 957 [see: Balzac v. People of Puerto Rico, 258 US 298]
1993 - District Court case:
The privileges and immunities clause of the 14th Amendment protects very few rights because it neither incorporates the Bill of Rights, nor protects all rights of individual citizens. Instead this provision protects only those rights peculiar to being a citizen of the federal government; it does not protect those rights which relate to state citizenship. Jones v. Temmer, 89 F. Supp 1226
How to make sense of it all?
1776:
When the Declaration of Independence was signed, the 13 British colonies in America became free and independent States, on equal footing with all other countries of the world.
The People in each of these 13 States/countries wrote their own constitution, identifying the powers of their State governments, and limiting the authority of their government, while also prohibiting their government from violating the fundamental rights of the People in the State.
1787:
The People, via their representatives in Congress, assembled, wrote a new constitution to create a 14th government (“federal government”) to grant certain powers to it for a more efficient overall government experience. This federal government was granted certain powers that would apply within the States, such as regulating foreign commerce, but only the powers enumerated. In addition, this document had a clause giving the federal government exclusive jurisdiction over the federal territories (powers beyond what was enumerated). So, the enumerated powers apply to the States, but all other powers ONLY apply to the federal territories and enclaves (military bases).
1819:
The courts were already recognizing that there could be a confusion with the term “citizen of the United States.” They were clarifying that this term meant a “citizen of a particular State, and by means of that, also a citizen of THESE States, united.” But, there was NO SUCH THING as a “citizen of the United States, as in the federal government.”
1868:
The 14th Amendment had a tricky clause, which created (or became construed as creating) a new class of citizenship, which was federal and NOT state.
Early 20th Century:
The courts were still recognizing that We the People, as individuals, have natural rights that the government (state or federal) cannot violate. But there was also a movement hidden in the shadows trying to pervert this idea. This was the time of the income tax and Federal Reserve creation (unconstitutional, btw).
Mid-20th Century:
The courts were recognizing these two competing ideas. There were those who were trying to trick everyone into thinking they were “US citizens” and at the same time not revealing that to be one of these, one would give up their natural rights. At the same time, some courts were reasserting the original concept, so as to remind Americans who they are (members of the sovereign class, and not subjects of the government, ruled over by a higher class -- which does not exist, in reality).
Current times:
Only people who have familiarized themselves with the REAL LAW of the United States of America (meaning, all the case law about this subject) understand that they are not citizens of an inferior class. However, the propaganda has been so strong, that these people are looked at by everyone else (myself included, until recently) … as crazy.
But really, who is crazy? Those who understand they are of the class of people who created the government, or those who believe they are inferior subjects who must do anything a government employee demands of them?
Food for thought.
Saw a story about the Google AI bot doing something stupid (again). Said the AI computer scraped data from Reddit and got "misinformation."
The most interesting part was they said that Google signed a deal with Reddit to "access its content."
This is what I have been saying about the AI scam: These news bots will ONLY access "approved" data sources (websites, databases, etc.) that the computer is PROGRAMMED (by humans) to access.
This will be the ONLY approved source of "truth" for the so-called "artificial intelliegence" machine.
Never forget: An AI computer is a MACHINE. It processes 1's and 0's, and will NEVER have actual intelligence like a human does (well, some humans).
It will be PROGRAMMED to access data from APPROVED SOURCES, and will ONLY spit out responses based on that limited set of data.
Imagine programming it to access GAW or a JFK conspiracy site, and THEN asking it questions.
It will ONLY spit out answers that it was PROGRAMMED to compile and spit out.
This story confirms that Google makes deals with only certain sources for its AI output. The AI computer does not "go out and find" the truth. Instead, it finds "truth" that it is programmed to find.
BTW: There is no getting around this because utilizing data that has not been agreed to by the owner of a website or database would be copyright infringement, so the ONLY option is to make deals -- and that will mean a LIMITED set of data for the AI to spit out.