Seems to require a pretty esoteric interpretation of the legalese. They use arguments like "the capitalization is different." e.g. "the United States of America" is a different entity than "the united states". But there is no clear glossary anywhere which specifically states this. And I've had commercial contracts where details like this were not considered relevant.

So I vote false. Then again, the law is complicated enough that a judge could find a precedent to support almost any position if they looked hard enough. But this seems like a stretch.