This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
There is honestly a painfully simple reason:
Nobody, Nobody with any degree of self-preservation would concievably want to go down in history as "The man who got Trump reelected". Its singing your own death warrant, to be carried out by the inevitable mob that will burn your house down with you, your wife and your children still in it. Its simple cowardice
I could see that being the case. They're all just terrified. Yet one more reason why "the military (would be) the only way."
Except trump gained at least 10 million more votes this time than he had in 2016. And that’s before you take into account all the fraud, so most likely that number is even larger. It’s extremely unlikely that Biden got anywhere close to the votes that he claims he got. That being said America has spoken, we want trump and the numbers prove it.
Many judges have already been corrupted (bribes, honeypots, etc). I think the rest probably received threats to their families. Kemp's daughter's boyfriend died in a car bomb. Then the investigator was murdered. Lots of convenient "suicides" or "heart attacks" have been happening to those who refused to play ball.