This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
I've always wondered this. WTF is the SCOTUS ruling on whether China influenced our election or not? This isn't a civil matter, it's a matter of national security that threatens our very existence.
Even if politicians were bought and paid for by CCP to pass laws in favor of China...Uhh, that's fucking treason and no civil court takes those cases. The integrity of our elections does not hinge on what the SCOTUS says or does. It simply doesn't.