This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
Only a single witness statement is needed for a criminal conviction.
See the following:
From https://www.law.cornell.edu/nyctap/I07_0020.htm on rape accusations:
From https://www.justice.gov/atr/case-document/united-states-proposed-jury-instructions on jury instructions:
All it takes is for a single claim and for the jury to think that they are truthful.
Ask a lawyer: https://www.avvo.com/legal-answers/-so-if-there-is-no-physical-evidence-other-than-wi-1717488.html
https://www.slgattorneysflorida.com/the-state-only-has-one-witness-isn-t-that-hearsay.html
https://splinternews.com/people-are-convicted-based-on-one-witness-all-the-time-1829367479
But it must still be "beyond a reasonable doubt," which is a much higher standard than most civil cases.
Sure all it takes for one criminal is one witness, but still think about what took place. One criminal wouldn’t be enough to overturn an election. You would have to go after all of them, or at least enough of them to make a difference. That of course would be a massive amount of time and investigation that would be required.
Juries can basically decide whatever they want based on how little they want. The main problem for this situation is just getting in front of a jury.