This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
I think at this point, the most obvious remedy would be impeachment. The courts don’t want to overturn the Congressional certification.
Biden and aharris can be allowed to profit from their fraud.
‘The single exception [to impeachment for crimes committed prior to becoming president] is spelled out in a rhetorical question posed at the Constitutional Convention in 1787 by George Mason of Virginia: “Shall the man who has practiced corruption & by that means procured his appoint in the first instance, be suffered to escape punishment, by repeating his guilt?”’ ‘Mason was referring to something specific: efforts to bribe members of the Electoral College, and thus to distort the process of presidential selection. But we should read his concern more broadly. It captures any candidate’s effort to procure his office through corrupt means.’ https://theprint.in/world/trumps-action-before-he-became-president-should-not-be-grounds-of-impeachment/298763/