This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
100% corruption, all courts, all states, all the way to the top, including SCOTUS and CJ Roberts. That’s why Roberts won’t preside if there’s an impeachment trial, even though that’s required. I don’t even think Trump knew how totally bad it was until recently. I have been a lawyer for a very long time. Standing is bs here, it usually is, but definitely here. If SCOTUS were to hear the evidence the Dems would be f#$&ed for sure because the fraud was so extensive.